NEET Full-Length Mock Test 1

NEET Mock Test - 2026

Test 1

Number Of Questions: 180

Time: 3 hours

Correct answer Carries: 4.

Wrong Answer Carries: -1.

3:00:00

Physics

A mixture contains 1 mole of helium and 1 mole of oxygen at 300 K. What is the ratio of their partial pressures?

For ideal gases, \(P = \frac{\mu RT}{V}\), partial pressure \(\propto \mu\) (since \(V\) and \(T\) are same).

Ratio \(\frac{P_{\text{He}}}{P_{\text{O}_2}} = \frac{\mu_{\text{He}}}{\mu_{\text{O}_2}} = \frac{1}{1} = 1\).

1:1
1:2
2:1
4:1
1

A circular coil of 50 turns and radius \( 5 \, \text{cm} \) carries a current of \( 2 \, \text{A} \). What is the magnetic field at the center of the coil? (\( \mu_0 = 4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \, \text{T m/A} \))

Magnetic field \( B = \frac{\mu_0 N I}{2 R} \).

\( B = \frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 50 \times 2}{2 \times 0.05} = \frac{2 \pi \times 10^{-5}}{0.1} = 2 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{T} \).

2 × 10⁻⁴ T
4 × 10⁻⁴ T
1 × 10⁻⁴ T
3 × 10⁻⁴ T
1

A wire of length \( 1.8 \, \text{m} \) carrying \( 2 \, \text{A} \) is at \( 30^\circ \) to a magnetic field of \( 0.45 \, \text{T} \). What is the force on the wire?

Force \( F = I l B \sin \theta \).

\( F = 2 \times 1.8 \times 0.45 \times \sin 30^\circ = 3.6 \times 0.45 \times 0.5 = 0.81 \, \text{N} \).

1.62 N
0.81 N
0.41 N
1.22 N
2

A particle in SHM has \( a = -16 x \) (in SI units). What is its period?

For SHM, \( a = -\omega^2 x \). Given \( a = -16 x \), so \( \omega^2 = 16 \Rightarrow \omega = 4 \, \text{rad/s} \).

\( T = \frac{2\pi}{\omega} = \frac{2\pi}{4} = \frac{\pi}{2} \approx 1.57 \, \text{s} \).

1.0 s
1.57 s
2.0 s
2.5 s
2

The dimensional formula of work is \( [M L^2 T^{-2}] \). What is the dimensional formula of power?

Power = Work/Time.

\( [P] = [M L^2 T^{-2}] / [T] = [M L^2 T^{-3}] \).

[M L T⁻³]
[M L² T⁻²]
[M L² T⁻³]
[M L³ T⁻³]
3

The magnetic potential energy of a dipole with \( m = 0.4 \, \text{A m}^2 \) in a field \( B = 0.7 \, \text{T} \) at \( 180^\circ \) is:

\( U_m = -m B \cos\theta \).

Given: \( m = 0.4 \, \text{A m}^2 \), \( B = 0.7 \, \text{T} \), \( \theta = 180^\circ \), \( \cos 180^\circ = -1 \).

Substitute: \( U_m = -0.4 \times 0.7 \times (-1) = 0.28 \, \text{J} \).

0.28 J
0.25 J
0.20 J
0.15 J
1

A rod of length 0.2 m moves at 5 m/s in a 0.3 T field perpendicular to its length. What is the induced emf?

Motional emf: \( \varepsilon = B l v \).

\( \varepsilon = 0.3 \times 0.2 \times 5 = 0.3 \, \text{V} \).

0.15 V
0.3 V
0.45 V
0.6 V
2

A \( 25 \, \text{mH} \) inductor is connected to a \( 220 \, \text{V} \), \( 50 \, \text{Hz} \) AC source. What is the rms current?

\( X_L = \omega L = 2\pi f L \).

\( f = 50 \, \text{Hz} \), \( L = 25 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{H} \).

\( \omega = 2 \times 3.14 \times 50 = 314 \, \text{rad/s} \).

\( X_L = 314 \times 0.025 = 7.85 \, \Omega \).

RMS current: \( I = \frac{V}{X_L} = \frac{220}{7.85} \approx 28 \, \text{A} \).

25 A
28 A
30 A
32 A
2

The magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is given by \( B_y = 3 \times 10^{-8} \sin(2 \times 10^3 z - 6 \times 10^{11} t) \, \text{T} \). What is the frequency of the wave?

Comparing with \( B_y = B_0 \sin(kz - \omega t) \), we have \( \omega = 6 \times 10^{11} \, \text{rad/s} \). Frequency \( v = \frac{\omega}{2\pi} = \frac{6 \times 10^{11}}{2 \pi} \approx 9.55 \times 10^{10} \, \text{Hz} \).

\( 7.5 \times 10^{10} \, \text{Hz} \)
\( 9.55 \times 10^{10} \, \text{Hz} \)
\( 1.2 \times 10^{11} \, \text{Hz} \)
\( 1.5 \times 10^{11} \, \text{Hz} \)
2

A dipole with \( m = 0.5 \, \text{A m}^2 \) in \( B = 0.7 \, \text{T} \) at \( 60^\circ \) has torque:

\( \tau = m B \sin\theta \).

Given: \( m = 0.5 \, \text{A m}^2 \), \( B = 0.7 \, \text{T} \), \( \theta = 60^\circ \), \( \sin 60^\circ = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \approx 0.866 \).

\( \tau = 0.5 \times 0.7 \times 0.866 \approx 0.3031 \, \text{N m} \approx 0.30 \, \text{N m} \).

0.27 N m
0.28 N m
0.29 N m
0.30 N m
4

A hot air balloon ascends at \( 4 \, \text{m/s} \) for \( 6 \, \text{s} \), then accelerates at \( 1.5 \, \text{m/s}^2 \) for \( 4 \, \text{s} \). A stone is dropped at this instant. How long does it take to reach the ground if the initial height was \( 30 \, \text{m} \)? (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

Phase 1: \( h_1 = 4 \cdot 6 = 24 \, \text{m} \).

Phase 2: \( v = 4 + 1.5 \cdot 4 = 10 \, \text{m/s} \), \( h_2 = 4 \cdot 4 + \frac{1}{2} \cdot 1.5 \cdot (4)^2 = 16 + 12 = 28 \, \text{m} \).

Total height = \( 30 + 24 + 28 = 82 \, \text{m} \), stone’s initial velocity = \( 10 \, \text{m/s} \) upward.

\( -82 = 10 t - 5 t^2 \Rightarrow 5 t^2 - 10 t - 82 = 0 \).

Solve: \( t = \frac{10 \pm \sqrt{100 + 1640}}{10} = \frac{10 \pm 41.23}{10} \), \( t = 5.12 \, \text{s} \) (positive root).

5.12 s
5 s
5.5 s
4.8 s
1

A tank open to the atmosphere has a hole at a depth of \( 0.8 \, \text{m} \) below the water surface. What is the speed of efflux? (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

Using Torricelli’s law: \( v = \sqrt{2 g h} \).

\( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \), \( h = 0.8 \, \text{m} \).

\( v = \sqrt{2 \times 10 \times 0.8} = \sqrt{16} = 4 \, \text{m/s} \).

2 m/s
4 m/s
6 m/s
8 m/s
2

A silver block of mass \( 0.2 \, \text{kg} \) at \( 90^\circ \text{C} \) is placed in \( 0.8 \, \text{kg} \) of water at \( 20^\circ \text{C} \). Find the final temperature. (Specific heat of silver = \( 236 \, \text{J kg}^{-1} \text{K}^{-1} \), water = \( 4186 \, \text{J kg}^{-1} \text{K}^{-1} \))

\( 0.2 \times 236 \times (90 - T) = 0.8 \times 4186 \times (T - 20) \).

\( 4248 - 47.2 T = 3348.8 T - 66976 \).

\( 4248 + 66976 = 3348.8 T + 47.2 T \).

\( 71224 = 3396 T \Rightarrow T \approx 20.97^\circ \text{C} \approx 21^\circ \text{C} \).

20°C
21°C
22°C
23°C
2

A steel rod of radius 0.005 m and length 1 m is compressed by a force producing a stress of 2 × 107 N/m2. If the Young's modulus of steel is 2 × 1011 N/m2, what is the strain?

Young's modulus: Y = Stress / Strain.

Strain: Strain = Stress / Y = (2 × 107) / (2 × 1011) = 1 × 10-4.

0.5 × 10-4
2 × 10-4
1 × 10-4
1.5 × 10-4
3

A copper sheet has an area of \( 2 \, \text{m}^2 \) at \( 25^\circ \text{C} \). What will be its area at \( 225^\circ \text{C} \)? (\( \alpha_l = 1.7 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{K}^{-1} \))

Given: \( A_0 = 2 \, \text{m}^2 \), \( \Delta T = 225 - 25 = 200^\circ \text{C} \), \( \alpha_l = 1.7 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{K}^{-1} \).

Area expansion: \( \Delta A = A_0 \times 2 \alpha_l \Delta T = 2 \times 2 \times 1.7 \times 10^{-5} \times 200 = 0.0136 \, \text{m}^2 \).

New area: \( A = A_0 + \Delta A = 2 + 0.0136 = 2.0136 \, \text{m}^2 \).

2.01 m²
2.0136 m²
2.02 m²
2.014 m²
2

A particle in SHM has \( x = 5 \sin (3t) \) (in m). What is its speed at \( x = 2.5 \, \text{m} \)?

Velocity: \( v = \pm \omega \sqrt{A^2 - x^2} \).

\( A = 5 \, \text{m}, \omega = 3 \, \text{s}^{-1}, x = 2.5 \, \text{m} \).

\( v = 3 \sqrt{5^2 - 2.5^2} = 3 \sqrt{25 - 6.25} = 3 \sqrt{18.75} \approx 12.99 \, \text{m/s} \).

10.0 m/s
12.0 m/s
12.99 m/s
15.0 m/s
3

Two charges \( q_1 = 2 \, \mu\text{C} \) and \( q_2 = -2 \, \mu\text{C} \) are 10 cm apart. What is the electric field at the midpoint between them?

Midpoint is 5 cm (0.05 m) from each charge. \( E_1 = \frac{k q_1}{r^2} \) (towards \( q_2 \)), \( E_2 = \frac{k |q_2|}{r^2} \) (towards \( q_2 \)).

\( E_1 = 9 \times 10^9 \times \frac{2 \times 10^{-6}}{(0.05)^2} = 7.2 \times 10^6 \, \text{N/C} \), \( E_2 = 7.2 \times 10^6 \, \text{N/C} \).

Net \( E = E_1 + E_2 = 7.2 \times 10^6 + 7.2 \times 10^6 = 1.44 \times 10^7 \, \text{N/C} \) (towards \( q_2 \)).

\( 7.2 \times 10^6 \, \text{N/C} \)
\( 1.44 \times 10^7 \, \text{N/C} \)
\( 1.8 \times 10^7 \, \text{N/C} \)
\( 0 \, \text{N/C} \)
2

A wave on a string has an amplitude of 2 cm and a wavelength of 0.5 m. What is the maximum transverse speed of a particle on the string if its frequency is 20 Hz?

Amplitude \( a = 0.02 \, \text{m} \), frequency \( v = 20 \, \text{Hz} \).

Angular frequency: \( \omega = 2\pi v = 2\pi \times 20 = 40\pi \, \text{rad/s} \).

Maximum speed: \( v_{\text{max}} = a \omega = 0.02 \times 40\pi \approx 2.51 \, \text{m/s} \).

1.5 m/s
2.0 m/s
2.5 m/s
3.0 m/s
3

The density \( \rho \) of a substance depends on mass \( m \) and volume \( V \) as \( \rho = k m^a V^b \). Given \( [\rho] = [M L^{-3}] \), find \( a \) and \( b \).

\( [m] = [M] \), \( [V] = [L^3] \).

\( [M L^{-3}] = [M]^a [L^3]^b = [M^a L^{3b}] \).

Equate: \( a = 1 \), \( 3b = -3 \Rightarrow b = -1 \).

\( a = 1, b = -1 \).

a = 1, b = -1
a = -1, b = 1
a = 1, b = 1
a = -1, b = -1
1

A \( 40 \, \text{kg} \) man in a lift accelerating downward at \( 3 \, \text{m/s}^2 \) stands on a scale. What is the reading? (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

The scale shows the normal force.

Net force: \( N - mg = ma \), where \( a = -3 \, \text{m/s}^2 \).

\( N - 40 \times 10 = 40 \times (-3) \).

\( N - 400 = -120 \Rightarrow N = 280 \, \text{N} \).

250 N
280 N
320 N
350 N
2

A force starts at \( 80 \, \text{N} \) over \( 6 \, \text{m} \), then decreases linearly to \( 20 \, \text{N} \) over \( 9 \, \text{m} \). What is the total work done?

Work in first part: \( W_1 = 80 \times 6 = 480 \, \text{J} \).

Work in second part: \( W_2 = \frac{1}{2} (80 + 20) \times 9 = 50 \times 9 = 450 \, \text{J} \).

Total work: \( W = 480 + 450 = 930 \, \text{J} \).

900 J
930 J
960 J
990 J
2

A glass slab (\( n = 1.6 \)) of thickness \( 8 \, \text{cm} \) is placed over a coin. What is the apparent shift in the position of the coin?

Shift = \( t \left( 1 - \frac{1}{n} \right) \).

\( t = 8 \, \text{cm} \), \( n = 1.6 \).

Shift = \( 8 \left( 1 - \frac{1}{1.6} \right) = 8 \left( 1 - 0.625 \right) = 8 \times 0.375 = 3 \, \text{cm} \).

2 cm
2.5 cm
2.8 cm
3 cm
4

In a single-slit diffraction experiment, if the slit width is \( 2.5 \, \mu\text{m} \) and the wavelength is \( 500 \, \text{nm} \), what is the angle of the first minimum?

First minimum occurs at \( \sin \theta = \frac{\lambda}{a} \).

\( \lambda = 500 \, \text{nm} = 5.0 \times 10^{-7} \, \text{m} \), \( a = 2.5 \, \mu\text{m} = 2.5 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{m} \).

\( \sin \theta = \frac{5.0 \times 10^{-7}}{2.5 \times 10^{-6}} = 0.2 \), so \( \theta = \sin^{-1}(0.2) \approx 11.5^\circ \).

10°
11.5°
15°
20°
2

A cyclist takes a circular turn of radius \( 5 \, \text{m} \) at \( 15 \, \text{m/s} \) on a level road with \( \mu_s = 0.4 \). Will the cyclist slip? (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

Centripetal force required \( F_c = \frac{mv^2}{r} = \frac{m \times (15)^2}{5} = 45m \, \text{N} \).

Maximum friction \( f_{\text{max}} = \mu_s mg = 0.4 \times m \times 10 = 4m \, \text{N} \).

Compare: \( F_c = 45m \, \text{N} > f_{\text{max}} = 4m \, \text{N} \).

Since required force exceeds maximum friction, the cyclist will slip.

No
Yes
Cannot determine
Depends on mass
2

A metal has a threshold frequency of \( 4.5 \times 10^{14} \, \text{Hz} \). What is the maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted by light of frequency \( 6.0 \times 10^{14} \, \text{Hz} \)? (Take \( h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \, \text{J s} \))

\( \phi_0 = h v_0 = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 4.5 \times 10^{14} = 2.9835 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{J} \).

\( E = h v = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 6.0 \times 10^{14} = 3.978 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{J} \).

\( K_{\max} = E - \phi_0 = 3.978 \times 10^{-19} - 2.9835 \times 10^{-19} = 9.945 \times 10^{-20} \, \text{J} \).

8.0 × 10⁻²⁰ J
9.0 × 10⁻²⁰ J
9.945 × 10⁻²⁰ J
1.0 × 10⁻¹⁹ J
3

A solid sphere is subjected to a uniform hydraulic pressure of 2 × 107 N/m2. If the bulk modulus of the material is 1 × 1010 N/m2, what is the fractional change in volume?

Bulk modulus: B = -p / (ΔV / V).

Rearrange: ΔV / V = -p / B.

Substitute: ΔV / V = -(2 × 107) / (1 × 1010) = -2 × 10-3.

Fractional change (magnitude): 2 × 10-3.

2 × 10-3
4 × 10-3
1 × 10-3
3 × 10-3
1

The speed of an electron in the first orbit of a hydrogen atom is \( 2.2 \times 10^6 \, \text{m/s} \). What is its speed in the second orbit?

\( v_n = \frac{v_1}{n} \), \( v_1 = 2.2 \times 10^6 \, \text{m/s} \).

For \( n = 2 \): \( v_2 = \frac{2.2 \times 10^6}{2} = 1.1 \times 10^6 \, \text{m/s} \).

\( 4.4 \times 10^6 \, \text{m/s} \)
\( 1.1 \times 10^6 \, \text{m/s} \)
\( 2.2 \times 10^6 \, \text{m/s} \)
\( 0.55 \times 10^6 \, \text{m/s} \)
2

A helicopter ascends at \( 6 \, \text{m/s} \) from \( 40 \, \text{m} \) height and releases a package after \( 5 \, \text{s} \). How long does the package take to hit the ground? (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

Height at release: \( h = 40 + 6 \cdot 5 = 70 \, \text{m} \).

Package’s initial velocity = \( 6 \, \text{m/s} \) upward.

\( -70 = 6 t - 5 t^2 \Rightarrow 5 t^2 - 6 t - 70 = 0 \).

Solve: \( t = \frac{6 \pm \sqrt{36 + 1400}}{10} = \frac{6 \pm 37.95}{10} \), \( t = 4.39 \, \text{s} \) (positive root).

4.2 s
4.39 s
4.5 s
4 s
2

A particle’s position is given by x = 4t + 2t² and y = 3t² (in meters and seconds). What is the magnitude of its velocity at t = 1 s?

Velocity components: v_x = dx/dt = 4 + 4t, v_y = dy/dt = 6t.

At t = 1 s: v_x = 4 + 4 × 1 = 8 m/s, v_y = 6 × 1 = 6 m/s.

Speed v = √(v_x² + v_y²) = √(8² + 6²) = √(64 + 36) = √100 = 10 m/s.

8 m/s
10 m/s
12 m/s
6 m/s
2

What is the energy of a photon emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom drops from \( n = 4 \) to \( n = 3 \)? (Use \( E_n = -\frac{13.6}{n^2} \, \text{eV} \))

\( E_4 = -0.85 \, \text{eV} \), \( E_3 = -1.51 \, \text{eV} \).

\( \Delta E = -0.85 - (-1.51) = 0.66 \, \text{eV} \).

1.89 eV
0.66 eV
2.55 eV
12.75 eV
2

Four \( 1 \, \text{kg} \) masses are at the corners of a square of side \( 2 \, \text{m} \). What is the potential energy of the system? (\( G = 6.67 \times 10^{-11} \, \text{N m}^2/\text{kg}^2 \))

Pairs: 4 sides (\( r = 2 \, \text{m} \)), 2 diagonals (\( r = 2\sqrt{2} \, \text{m} \)).

\( V = -4 \frac{G m^2}{2} - 2 \frac{G m^2}{2\sqrt{2}} \).

\( V = -4 \frac{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 1}{2} - 2 \frac{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 1}{2\sqrt{2}} \).

\( V = -1.334 \times 10^{-10} - 0.471 \times 10^{-10} \approx -1.805 \times 10^{-10} \, \text{J} \).

-1.6 × 10⁻¹⁰ J
-1.8 × 10⁻¹⁰ J
-2.0 × 10⁻¹⁰ J
-2.2 × 10⁻¹⁰ J
2

A force \( \mathbf{F} = 3 \, \hat{\mathbf{i}} + 4 \, \hat{\mathbf{j}} \, \text{N} \) acts at a point with position vector \( \mathbf{r} = 2 \, \hat{\mathbf{i}} - 1 \, \hat{\mathbf{j}} \, \text{m} \). What is the magnitude of the torque about the origin?

Torque: \( \mathbf{\tau} = \mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{F} = \begin{vmatrix} \hat{\mathbf{i}} & \hat{\mathbf{j}} & \hat{\mathbf{k}} \\ 2 & -1 & 0 \\ 3 & 4 & 0 \end{vmatrix} = \hat{\mathbf{k}} (2 \times 4 - (-1) \times 3) = \hat{\mathbf{k}} (8 + 3) = 11 \, \hat{\mathbf{k}} \, \text{Nm} \).

Magnitude = \( 11 \, \text{Nm} \).

9 Nm
10 Nm
11 Nm
12 Nm
3

A dipole with \( p = 5 \times 10^{-10} \, \text{C m} \) is along the x-axis. What is the potential at \( (2, 2, 0) \, \text{m} \)? (Take \( \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \, \text{Nm}^2 \text{C}^{-2} \)).

\( r = \sqrt{2^2 + 2^2} = 2\sqrt{2} \, \text{m} \), \( \cos \theta = \frac{2}{2\sqrt{2}} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \).

\( V = 9 \times 10^9 \times \frac{5 \times 10^{-10} \times \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}}{(2\sqrt{2})^2} = 9 \times 10^9 \times \frac{5 \times 10^{-10}}{8\sqrt{2}} \times \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} = 9 \times 10^9 \times \frac{5 \times 10^{-10}}{16} = 2.8125 \, \text{V} \).

2.5 V
2.81 V
3 V
3.54 V
2

What is the binding energy per nucleon for a nucleus with total binding energy of \( 112 \, \text{MeV} \) and mass number 14?

Binding energy per nucleon = \( \frac{E_b}{A} \).

\( E_b = 112 \, \text{MeV} \), \( A = 14 \).

\( \frac{112}{14} = 8 \, \text{MeV} \).

8 MeV
16 MeV
7 MeV
9 MeV
1

A body weighs \( 49 \, \text{N} \) on Earth’s surface. What is its weight at a height \( h = R_E/4 \)? (\( g = 9.8 \, \text{m/s}^2, R_E = 6.4 \times 10^6 \, \text{m} \))

\( g(h) = \frac{g}{(1 + h/R_E)^2} \).

\( h = R_E/4 \), \( 1 + h/R_E = 1 + 1/4 = 5/4 \).

\( g(h) = \frac{9.8}{(5/4)^2} = \frac{9.8}{25/16} = 9.8 \times \frac{16}{25} = 6.272 \, \text{m/s}^2 \).

Mass: \( m = \frac{49}{9.8} = 5 \, \text{kg} \).

Weight: \( W = 5 \times 6.272 \approx 31.36 \, \text{N} \).

30 N
31 N
32 N
33 N
3

A \( 4 \, \Omega \) resistor carries a current of \( 5 \, \text{A} \) for \( 10 \, \text{s} \). What is the energy dissipated?

Energy: \( W = I^2 R t \).

Substitute: \( W = 5^2 \times 4 \times 10 = 25 \times 40 = 1000 \, \text{J} \).

\( 800 \, \text{J} \)
\( 900 \, \text{J} \)
\( 950 \, \text{J} \)
\( 1000 \, \text{J} \)
4

A wire of length \( 6 \, \text{m} \) and resistance \( 15 \, \Omega \) is stretched to \( 12 \, \text{m} \). What is the new resistance?

Volume constant: \( l A = l' A' \Rightarrow A' = \frac{A}{2} \).

New resistance: \( R' = \frac{\rho l'}{A'} = \frac{\rho (2l)}{\frac{A}{2}} = 4 \frac{\rho l}{A} = 4R = 4 \times 15 = 60 \, \Omega \).

\( 45 \, \Omega \)
\( 50 \, \Omega \)
\( 60 \, \Omega \)
\( 65 \, \Omega \)
3

A bar magnet with \( m = 2.0 \, \text{A m}^2 \) produces a field at \( 0.5 \, \text{m} \) on its equatorial line. What is \( B \)? (Take \( \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \, \text{T m A}^{-1} \)).

\( B = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{m}{r^3} \).

Given: \( m = 2.0 \, \text{A m}^2 \), \( r = 0.5 \, \text{m} \), \( \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} = 10^{-7} \).

\( B = 10^{-7} \times \frac{2.0}{(0.5)^3} = 10^{-7} \times \frac{2.0}{0.125} = 1.6 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{T} \).

1.2 × 10⁻⁶ T
1.4 × 10⁻⁶ T
1.6 × 10⁻⁶ T
1.8 × 10⁻⁶ T
3

Two stones are dropped from a height of \( 200 \, \text{m} \), with a \( 2.5 \, \text{s} \) interval. What is their separation when the second stone has fallen for \( 3 \, \text{s} \)? (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

First stone (after 5.5 s): \( y_1 = \frac{1}{2} \cdot 10 \cdot (5.5)^2 = 151.25 \, \text{m} \).

Second stone (after 3 s): \( y_2 = \frac{1}{2} \cdot 10 \cdot (3)^2 = 45 \, \text{m} \).

Separation = \( 200 - 151.25 - 45 = 3.75 \, \text{m} \) (but both falling, so \( 151.25 - 45 = 106.25 \, \text{m} \)).

100 m
110 m
106.25 m
115 m
3

Four capacitors of \( 10 \, \mu\text{F} \) each are in series. What is the equivalent capacitance?

\( \frac{1}{C} = \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{10} = \frac{4}{10} \).

\( C = \frac{10}{4} = 2.5 \, \mu\text{F} \).

2 µF
3 µF
2.8 µF
2.5 µF
4

In a Wheatstone bridge, \( R_1 = 20 \, \Omega \), \( R_2 = 40 \, \Omega \), \( R_3 = 10 \, \Omega \). What should \( R_4 \) be for the bridge to be balanced?

Balance condition: \( \frac{R_1}{R_2} = \frac{R_3}{R_4} \).

Substitute: \( \frac{20}{40} = \frac{10}{R_4} \).

Solve: \( 0.5 = \frac{10}{R_4} \Rightarrow R_4 = \frac{10}{0.5} = 20 \, \Omega \).

\( 15 \, \Omega \)
\( 20 \, \Omega \)
\( 25 \, \Omega \)
\( 30 \, \Omega \)
2

A solenoid with 600 turns per meter carries a current of \( 4 \, \text{A} \). What is the magnetic intensity \( H \) inside?

Magnetic intensity \( H = n I \).

Given: \( n = 600 \, \text{m}^{-1} \), \( I = 4 \, \text{A} \).

Substitute: \( H = 600 \times 4 = 2400 \, \text{A m}^{-1} \).

2400 A m⁻¹
2000 A m⁻¹
1800 A m⁻¹
3000 A m⁻¹
1

A solenoid produces \( B = 0.75 \, \text{T} \) with a core of \( \mu_r = 500 \) and \( n = 1000 \, \text{m}^{-1} \). What is the current \( I \)? (Take \( \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \, \text{T m A}^{-1} \)).

\( B = \mu_0 \mu_r n I \), so \( I = \frac{B}{\mu_0 \mu_r n} \).

Given: \( B = 0.75 \, \text{T} \), \( \mu_r = 500 \), \( n = 1000 \, \text{m}^{-1} \), \( \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \).

\( I = \frac{0.75}{4\pi \times 10^{-7} \times 500 \times 1000} = \frac{0.75}{6.283 \times 10^{-1}} \approx 1.194 \, \text{A} \approx 1.2 \, \text{A} \).

1.0 A
1.1 A
1.2 A
1.3 A
3

The reverse bias current in a p-n junction diode is mainly due to:

In reverse bias, the current (in \( \mu \text{A} \)) is due to the drift of minority carriers across the junction, as diffusion is suppressed by the increased barrier height.

Diffusion of majority carriers
Thermal generation
Drift of minority carriers
Breakdown of the junction
3

A nichrome wire has a resistance of \( 100 \, \Omega \) at \( 30^\circ \text{C} \) and \( \alpha = 1.7 \times 10^{-4} \, ^\circ\text{C}^{-1} \). What is its resistance at \( 150^\circ \text{C} \)?

Use: \( R_t = R_0 [1 + \alpha (T - T_0)] \).

Substitute: \( R_t = 100 [1 + 1.7 \times 10^{-4} (150 - 30)] \).

Calculate: \( R_t = 100 [1 + 1.7 \times 10^{-4} \times 120] = 100 [1 + 0.0204] = 102.04 \, \Omega \).

\( 101 \, \Omega \)
\( 102.04 \, \Omega \)
\( 103 \, \Omega \)
\( 104 \, \Omega \)
2

Chemistry

What is the sign of work done when a gas is compressed at constant pressure?

Work done on the system (compression, \(\Delta V < 0\)) is positive (\(w=-p\Delta V> 0\)).

Negative
Positive
Zero
Depends on temperature
2

In a closed container, water is in equilibrium with its vapor at 25°C, and the vapor pressure is 0.0313 atm. If the volume of the container is doubled suddenly, what happens to the vapor pressure initially?

Initially, the number of vapor molecules remains the same, but the volume doubles, reducing the pressure to half: \( 0.0313 / 2 = 0.01565 \approx 0.0157 \) atm.

Decreases to 0.0157 atm
Remains 0.0313 atm
Increases to 0.0626 atm
Drops to zero
1

What is the total number of covalent bonds in \( \ce{CH3CH2NH2} \)?

In \( \ce{CH3CH2NH2} \), there are 7 single bonds: 5 C-H, 1 C-C, 1 C-N, and 2 N-H. Each single bond is a covalent bond, totaling 7.

7
6
8
5
1

Which of the following hydrocarbons is an example of an aromatic hydrocarbon?

Aromatic hydrocarbons contain benzene rings. Benzene (\( \ce{C6H6} \)) is a typical example of an aromatic hydrocarbon.

Methane
Ethene
Benzene
Butane
3

Calculate the boiling point elevation of a solution containing 6 g of urea (\( \ce{NH2CONH2} \)) in 100 g of water. (\( K_b = 0.52 \, \text{K kg/mol}, \text{Molar mass of urea} = 60 \, \text{g/mol} \))

Moles of urea = \( \frac{6}{60} = 0.1 \, \text{mol} \).

Molality = \( \frac{0.1}{0.1} = 1 \, \text{mol/kg} \).

\( \Delta T_b = 0.52 \times 1 = 0.52 \, \text{K} \).

0.26 K
0.52 K
1.04 K
0.13 K
2

How much charge in coulombs is required to reduce 1 mol of Al³⁺ to Al?

Reaction: Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al(s), 3 moles of electrons per mole of Al.

Charge = \( 3 \times F = 3 \times 96500 = 289500 \, \text{C} \).

96500 C
193000 C
289500 C
386000 C
3

A reaction has \( k = 1.0 \times 10^{-3} \, \ce{s^{-1}} \) at 27°C and \( E_a = 52 \, \ce{kJ mol^{-1}} \). What is the temperature (in °C) when \( k = 3.0 \times 10^{-3} \, \ce{s^{-1}} \)? (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

\( \log \frac{3.0 \times 10^{-3}}{1.0 \times 10^{-3}} = \frac{52000}{2.303 \times 8.314} \left( \frac{T_2 - 300}{300 T_2} \right) \).

\( 0.477 = 2717.5 \left( \frac{T_2 - 300}{300 T_2} \right) \), \( T_2 \approx 316 \, \ce{K} = 43 \, \ce{°C} \).

35°C
50°C
27°C
43°C
4

The lanthanoid contraction is primarily due to the poor shielding effect of which orbitals?

The 4f orbitals have poor shielding due to their radial distribution, causing a greater effective nuclear charge and size reduction across the lanthanoids.

4f
5d
6s
3d
1

Which of the following is an allylic halide?

Allylic halides have the halogen atom attached to an sp3-hybridized carbon adjacent to a carbon-carbon double bond.

\( \ce{CH2=CHCH2Cl} \)
\( \ce{C6H5Cl} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2Cl} \)
\( \ce{CH3CHClCH3} \)
1

Which of the following methods is most suitable for preparing primary alcohols?

Primary alcohols can be synthesized by the reduction of aldehydes using LiAlH4.

Reduction of ketones
Reduction of aldehydes
Oxidation of alkanes
Hydration of alkynes
2

Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

Sucrose lacks a free aldehyde or ketone group due to the glycosidic bond between C1 of glucose and C2 of fructose, making it non-reducing.

Maltose
Sucrose
Lactose
Glucose
2

A zero-order reaction has a rate constant of \( 2.0 \times 10^{-2} \, \ce{mol L^{-1} min^{-1}} \). How long will it take for 0.5 M to reduce to 0.1 M?

\( t = \frac{[\ce{R}]_0 - [\ce{R}]}{k} = \frac{0.5 - 0.1}{2.0 \times 10^{-2}} = 20 \, \ce{min} \).

15 min
25 min
30 min
20 min
4

What is the hybridization of the nitrogen atom in \( \ce{CH3NH2} \)?

In \( \ce{CH3NH2} \), the nitrogen forms three single bonds (to C and 2 H) and has one lone pair, indicating \( sp^3 \) hybridization.

\( sp \)
\( sp^2 \)
\( sp^3 \)
\( sp^3d \)
3

What is the approximate mass of a neutron in unified mass units (u)?

The mass of a neutron is slightly greater than that of a proton. Its approximate value in unified mass units is 1 u, specifically around 1.00867 u, but commonly approximated as 1 u for simplicity.

1 u
0.00054 u
1.00727 u
2 u
1

A solution contains 5 g of glucose dissolved in 95 g of water. What is the mass percentage of glucose?

Total mass = 5 + 95 = 100 g.

Mass % = (5 / 100) × 100 = 5%.

2.5%
5%
10%
15%
2

Which molecule has a bond order of 3 according to the Lewis structure?

In \( \ce{N2} \), nitrogen atoms share 3 electron pairs, giving a bond order of 3 (triple bond).

\( \ce{O2} \)
\( \ce{N2} \)
\( \ce{F2} \)
\( \ce{H2} \)
2

The \( K_a \) of \( \ce{HF} \) is \( 6.8 \times 10^{-4} \). What is the pH of a 0.1 M \( \ce{HF} \) solution?

\( K_a = \frac{[\ce{H+}][\ce{F-}]}{[\ce{HF}]} \approx \frac{x^2}{0.1} \), \( 6.8 \times 10^{-4} = \frac{x^2}{0.1} \), \( x^2 = 6.8 \times 10^{-5} \), \( x \approx 8.25 \times 10^{-3} \).

\( \text{pH} = -\log(8.25 \times 10^{-3}) \approx 2.08 \).

1.5
3.0
2.5
2.1
4

In Lassaigne’s test, the formation of a blood-red color indicates the presence of which elements together?

When nitrogen and sulphur are present, they form \( \ce{NaSCN} \), which reacts with \( \ce{FeCl3} \) to produce a blood-red \( \ce{Fe(SCN)3} \).

Nitrogen and sulphur
Nitrogen and chlorine
Sulphur and chlorine
Nitrogen and oxygen
1

A solution of 4.8 g of a non-volatile solute in 150 g of water has a boiling point elevation of 0.208 K. What is the molar mass of the solute? (\( K_b = 0.52 \, \text{K kg/mol} \))

Molality = \( \frac{\Delta T_b}{K_b} = \frac{0.208}{0.52} = 0.4 \, \text{mol/kg} \).

Moles = \( 0.4 \times 0.15 = 0.06 \, \text{mol} \).

Molar mass = \( \frac{4.8}{0.06} = 80 \, \text{g/mol} \).

40 g/mol
120 g/mol
60 g/mol
80 g/mol
4

What is the molar conductivity at infinite dilution for CaCl₂ if the ionic molar conductivities of Ca²⁺ and Cl⁻ are 119.0 S cm² mol⁻¹ and 76.3 S cm² mol⁻¹ respectively?

According to Kohlrausch’s law, \( \Lambda_m^0 = \lambda_{\text{Ca}^{2+}}^0 + 2\lambda_{\text{Cl}^{-}}^0 \).

\( \Lambda_m^0 = 119.0 + 2 \times 76.3 = 119.0 + 152.6 = 271.6 \, \text{S cm}^2 \text{mol}^{-1} \).

271.6 S cm² mol⁻¹
195.3 S cm² mol⁻¹
347.9 S cm² mol⁻¹
152.6 S cm² mol⁻¹
1

A first-order reaction has a rate constant of \( 0.0462 \, \ce{min^{-1}} \). What is the half-life in minutes?

\( t_{1/2} = \frac{0.693}{k} = \frac{0.693}{0.0462} = 15 \, \ce{min} \).

10
20
15
30
3

What is the color of \( \ce{[Ti(H2O)6]^{3+}} \) in aqueous solution?

\( \ce{[Ti(H2O)6]^{3+}} \) (Ti³⁺, \( d^1 \)) absorbs blue-green light due to \( t_{2g} \) to \( e_g \) transition, appearing violet, the complementary color.

Yellow
Blue
Green
Violet
4

Which of the following undergoes hydrolysis most easily?

Benzylic halides undergo hydrolysis easily due to resonance stabilization.

\( \ce{C6H5CH2Cl} \)
\( \ce{C6H5Cl} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2Cl} \)
\( \ce{CH3Cl} \)
1

What is the product when \( \ce{CH3NH2} \) reacts with \( \ce{CH3CH2COCl} \)?

Methylamine (\( \ce{CH3NH2} \)) reacts with propanoyl chloride (\( \ce{CH3CH2COCl} \)) to form \( \ce{CH3NHCOCH2CH3} \) (N-methylpropanamide) via acylation.

\( \ce{CH3CH2CONH2} \)
\( \ce{CH3NHCOCH2CH3} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2NHCH3} \)
\( \ce{CH3NH3+Cl-} \)
2

Which reaction is commonly used for the laboratory preparation of alkanes?

Wurtz reaction involves the reaction of alkyl halides with sodium in dry ether, leading to the formation of higher alkanes.

Friedel-Crafts alkylation
Wurtz reaction
Aldol condensation
Cannizzaro reaction
2

Which type of isomerism is exhibited by \( \ce{CH3CH2CH2CH2OH} \) and \( \ce{CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3} \)?

Both have the formula \( \ce{C4H9OH} \) but differ in the position of the -OH group (carbon 1 vs. carbon 2), indicating position isomerism.

Chain isomerism
Position isomerism
Functional isomerism
Metamerism
2

For the reaction \(\ce{H2(g) -> 2H(g)}\), what is the entropy change?

Entropy increases as one molecule dissociates into two atoms, increasing disorder.

Decreases
Remains zero
No change
Increases
4

What is the bond order of \( \ce{C2} \) according to molecular orbital theory?

For \( \ce{C2} \): 12 electrons, \( (\sigma 1s)^2 (\sigma^* 1s)^2 (\sigma 2s)^2 (\sigma^* 2s)^2 (\pi 2p_x)^2 (\pi 2p_y)^2 \). Bonding = 8, antibonding = 4. Bond order = \( \frac{1}{2} (8 - 4) = 2 \).

1
3
1.5
2
4

The element with atomic number 21 belongs to which block?

Scandium (Sc, Z=21) has \([Ar] 3d^1 4s^2\), with the last electron in 3d, placing it in the d-block.

s-block
p-block
f-block
d-block
4

In the reaction \( \ce{4NH3 + 5O2 -> 4NO + 6H2O} \), how many grams of O₂ are required to react with 17 g of NH₃? (Atomic masses: N = 14, H = 1, O = 16)

Molar mass of NH₃ = 17 g/mol.

Moles of NH₃ = 17 / 17 = 1 mol.

4 mol NH₃ require 5 mol O₂. Moles of O₂ = (5 / 4) × 1 = 1.25 mol.

Mass = 1.25 × 32 = 40 g.

32 g
36 g
48 g
40 g
4

Which factor contributes to the extra stability of a half-filled subshell?

Exchange energy, released when electrons with parallel spins exchange positions in degenerate orbitals, enhances stability in half-filled or fully filled subshells.

Shielding effect
Coulombic repulsion
Nuclear charge
Exchange energy
4

For \( \ce{FeO(s) + CO(g) <=> Fe(s) + CO2(g)} \), \( K_p = 0.5 \) atm at 1000 K. If initial \( p_{\ce{CO}} = 1 \) atm, what is \( p_{\ce{CO2}} \) at equilibrium?

Let \( p_{\ce{CO2}} = x \), \( p_{\ce{CO}} = 1 - x \). Solids are omitted.

\( K_p = \frac{p_{\ce{CO2}}}{p_{\ce{CO}}} = \frac{x}{1 - x} = 0.5 \).

\( x = 0.5 - 0.5x \), \( 1.5x = 0.5 \), \( x = 0.333 \) atm.

0.5 atm
0.33 atm
1.0 atm
0.67 atm
2

Which of the following is a combination redox reaction?

A combination redox reaction involves elements combining, with oxidation and reduction occurring. \( \ce{C + O2 -> CO2} \) has C (0 to +4) oxidized and O (0 to -2) reduced.

\( \ce{C + O2 -> CO2} \)
\( \ce{2HgO -> 2Hg + O2} \)
\( \ce{Zn + CuSO4 -> ZnSO4 + Cu} \)
\( \ce{2H2O2 -> 2H2O + O2} \)
1

Which of the following properties is NOT characteristic of transition metals?

Transition metals typically have high melting points due to strong metallic bonding involving (n-1)d electrons. Low melting points are not characteristic.

High melting points
Variable oxidation states
Low melting points
Formation of colored ions
3

Which element with atomic number 114 belongs to which block?

Flerovium (Z=114) has the configuration [Rn]5f¹⁴6d¹⁰7s²7p², with the last electron in 7p, placing it in the p-block.

p-block
s-block
d-block
f-block
1

Which of the following lanthanoids exhibits a +4 oxidation state due to its noble gas configuration?

Cerium (Ce, Z = 58) forms \( \ce{Ce^{4+}} \) with \( 4f^0 \) (noble gas-like), making it stable in this state.

Eu
Ce
Gd
Lu
2

Which ligand is bidentate?

A bidentate ligand binds through two donor atoms. \( \ce{H2NCH2CH2NH2} \) (ethane-1,2-diamine or en) has two nitrogen atoms that can coordinate, making it bidentate, unlike \( \ce{NH3} \), \( \ce{Cl^-} \), or \( \ce{H2O} \), which are unidentate.

\( \ce{NH3} \)
\( \ce{H2NCH2CH2NH2} \)
\( \ce{Cl^-} \)
\( \ce{H2O} \)
2

Which of the following alcohols will show a positive iodoform test?

Alcohols with the structure CH3-C(OH)-R (where R can be H or any alkyl group) give a positive iodoform test.

Methanol
Ethanol
Propan-1-ol
Butan-2-ol
2

Which reaction converts benzene to benzophenone?

Friedel-Crafts acylation introduces a ketone functional group into benzene.

Wurtz reaction
Friedel-Crafts alkylation
Friedel-Crafts acylation
Cannizzaro reaction
4

What is the product when \( \ce{CH3CH2NH2} \) reacts with excess \( \ce{CH3CH2Br} \)?

With excess \( \ce{CH3CH2Br} \), \( \ce{CH3CH2NH2} \) undergoes exhaustive alkylation to form the tertiary amine \( \ce{(CH3CH2)3N} \) (triethylamine).

\( \ce{CH3CH2NHCH2CH3} \)
\( \ce{(CH3CH2)2NH} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2Br} \)
\( \ce{(CH3CH2)3N} \)
4

Which of the following amino acids is not optically active?

Glycine lacks an asymmetric carbon atom (its side chain is -H), making it the only naturally occurring α-amino acid that is not optically active.

Alanine
Methionine
Glycine
Tyrosine
3

Which of the following compounds does not undergo nucleophilic addition reaction?

Carboxylic acids do not undergo nucleophilic addition reactions because the carbonyl carbon is less electrophilic due to resonance stabilization.

Aldehydes
Ketones
Carboxylic acids
Formaldehyde
3

Which of the following is an industrial application of \( \ce{KMnO4} \)?

\( \ce{KMnO4} \) is used for bleaching textiles (wool, cotton, silk) due to its strong oxidizing power.

Catalyst in ammonia synthesis
Pigment production
Coinage metal alloy
Bleaching of textile fibers
4

Which of the following elements is most likely to exhibit covalent character in its compounds?

Beryllium (Be), due to its small size and high charge density, forms compounds with significant covalent character (e.g., \(BeCl_2\)).

Ca
Be
Sr
Ba
2

How many molecules are in 4 g of H₂? (Molar mass = 2 g/mol, Avogadro number = 6.022 × 10²³)

Moles = 4 / 2 = 2 mol.

Molecules = 2 × 6.022 × 10²³ = 1.2044 × 10²⁴.

6.022 × 10²³
9.033 × 10²³
1.2044 × 10²⁴
3.011 × 10²³
3

Botany

Which of the following types of roots arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle?

Tap roots
Fibrous roots
Adventitious roots
Lateral roots
3

Adventitious roots arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle, such as in banyan and grass.

In which type of plants are vascular bundles found scattered throughout the ground tissue?

Dicot stems
Dicot roots
Monocot stems
Monocot roots
3

In monocot stems, vascular bundles are scattered within the ground tissue and lack cambium.

Which of the following statements about the Golgi apparatus is incorrect?

The Golgi apparatus packages proteins for secretion.
The Golgi apparatus modifies proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum.
The Golgi apparatus produces lysosomes.
The Golgi apparatus synthesizes DNA.
4

The Golgi apparatus is involved in modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins, but it does not synthesize DNA.

Which of the following is NOT a product of the Krebs cycle?

ATP
FADH₂
NADH
Glucose
4

The Krebs cycle produces ATP, NADH, and FADH₂, but glucose is not a product of the cycle.

Which type of plasticity is exhibited by cotton and coriander due to different leaf forms in juvenile and mature stages?

Genetic plasticity
Developmental plasticity
Environmental plasticity
Physiological plasticity
2

Cotton and coriander exhibit developmental plasticity, showing different leaf forms during juvenile and mature stages.

The process of pollen grain germination occurs on the:

Ovary
Style
Stigma
Ovule
3

Pollen grains land and germinate on the sticky surface of the stigma.

Which of the following is an example of incomplete dominance?

AB blood group
Red and white flowers producing pink flowers
Tall and dwarf plants producing all tall offspring
Yellow and green seeds forming only yellow seeds
2

Incomplete dominance occurs when heterozygous offspring exhibit an intermediate phenotype, as seen in pink flowers from red and white parents.

What is the structure at the center of a chromosome where spindle fibers attach?

Telomere
Centromere
Chromatid
Nucleolus
2

The centromere is the region where spindle fibers attach, aiding in chromosome movement during division.

Which part of a monocot seed protects the plumule?

Coleorhiza
Aleurone layer
Coleoptile
Scutellum
3

The coleoptile is a protective sheath covering the plumule in monocot seeds.

Which branch of biology deals with classification, nomenclature, and identification of organisms?

Ecology
Taxonomy
Genetics
Cytology
2

Taxonomy is the branch of biology that classifies, names, and identifies organisms systematically.

Which of the following is correct about plastids?

Plastids are present in animal cells.
Amyloplasts store starch.
Chromoplasts are responsible for photosynthesis.
Plastids are involved in protein synthesis.
2

Amyloplasts are a type of plastid that store starch in plant cells.

Which molecule is transported from mesophyll cells to bundle sheath cells in C₄ plants?

RuBP
PGA
Malate
G3P
3

In C₄ plants, malate is transported from mesophyll cells to bundle sheath cells, where it releases CO₂ for the Calvin cycle.

Which of the following is the male gametophyte in flowering plants?

Embryo sac
Pollen grain
Ovule
Zygote
2

The pollen grain is the male gametophyte that produces sperm cells in flowering plants.

What is the purpose of a test cross in genetics?

To determine the genotype of an individual
To create new genetic mutations
To eliminate recessive traits
To increase variation in offspring
1

A test cross is performed to determine whether an organism is homozygous or heterozygous for a dominant trait.

Which of the following statements about genetic disorders is correct?

Down’s syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 18.
Turner’s syndrome results from an extra Y chromosome.
Klinefelter’s syndrome is caused by the XXY chromosome pattern.
Hemophilia is an autosomal dominant disorder.
3

Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs due to an extra X chromosome, leading to a 47, XXY karyotype.

Which plant growth regulator promotes rapid internode elongation in deepwater rice plants?

Auxin
Gibberellin
Ethylene
Abscisic acid
3

Ethylene promotes rapid internode elongation in deepwater rice, enabling the plant to stay above water.

Which of the following is CORRECT about the Electron Transport Chain (ETC)?

It occurs in the cytoplasm.
Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor.
ATP is synthesized using substrate-level phosphorylation.
It does not require a proton gradient.
2

In the Electron Transport Chain, oxygen serves as the final electron acceptor, forming water.

Which phase of mitosis involves chromosomal condensation?

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
1

Prophase is marked by the initiation of chromosomal condensation, making them visible under a microscope.

Which of the following describes a palmately compound leaf?

Leaflets are attached at a common point
Leaflets are arranged along a central axis
Leaf blade is undivided
Leaves are arranged in an alternate phyllotaxy
1

In palmately compound leaves, leaflets are attached at a common point, as seen in silk cotton.

Which of the following groups of organisms do not have a true nucleus?

Protists
Fungi
Monerans
Plants
3

Monerans, including bacteria and archaebacteria, are prokaryotic and lack a well-defined nucleus.

Which of the following structures is unique to monocot leaves?

Palisade mesophyll
Spongy mesophyll
Bulliform cells
Bundle sheath cells
3

Bulliform cells in monocot leaves help in minimizing water loss by curling the leaves under drought conditions.

Which microtubule arrangement is characteristic of eukaryotic cilia and flagella?

9+2 arrangement
9+0 arrangement
6+6 arrangement
8+1 arrangement
1

The axoneme of eukaryotic cilia and flagella shows a 9+2 arrangement of microtubules, consisting of nine peripheral doublets and two central microtubules.

Which enzyme is absent in mesophyll cells of C₄ plants?

RuBisCO
PEP carboxylase
ATP synthase
NADP reductase
1

In C₄ plants, RuBisCO is absent in mesophyll cells and is present only in bundle sheath cells.

Which of the following statements about codons is incorrect?

Each codon consists of three nucleotides.
There are 64 possible codons.
Codons in mRNA bind to tRNA anticodons during translation.
Each codon codes for more than one amino acid.
4

Each codon codes for only one specific amino acid, not multiple amino acids.

Which of the following is a correct statement about ecosystem stability?

Higher biodiversity increases ecosystem resilience.
Ecosystem stability is not influenced by species interactions.
Ecosystem stability depends only on abiotic factors.
Ecosystem stability is unaffected by human activities.
1

Higher biodiversity enhances ecosystem resilience by increasing species interactions and functional redundancy.

Which of the following correctly represents net primary productivity (NPP)?

NPP = GPP + R
NPP = GPP - R
NPP = R - GPP
NPP = R + GPP
2

Net Primary Productivity (NPP) is the biomass available to consumers and is calculated as Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) minus Respiration (R).

Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding co-dominance?

Both alleles are equally expressed in the heterozygous condition.
AB blood group is an example of co-dominance.
One allele completely masks the other in co-dominance.
Co-dominance differs from incomplete dominance.
3

In co-dominance, both alleles are equally expressed rather than one masking the other.

Which of the following structures disappears during prophase of mitosis?

Chromatin
Mitochondria
Nuclear envelope
Centrosome
3

During prophase, the nuclear envelope breaks down, allowing chromosomes to move freely within the cell.

In which type of inflorescence are older flowers at the base and younger ones at the tip?

Cymose
Racemose
Umbel
Spike
2

In racemose inflorescence, the main axis continues to grow, and older flowers are found at the base while younger ones are at the tip.

Which of the following statements about viruses is correct?

Viruses have both DNA and RNA
Viruses are considered living only inside a host cell
Viruses can replicate independently
Viruses have a cell membrane
2

Viruses are considered living only when inside a host cell, where they use the host’s machinery to replicate.

Which component of the plasma membrane contributes to its fluidity?

Proteins
Phospholipids
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
2

The phospholipid bilayer contributes to membrane fluidity by allowing lateral movement of molecules.

Which of the following statements about the leading and lagging strands is correct?

The leading strand is synthesized discontinuously.
The lagging strand is synthesized continuously.
Both strands are synthesized in the 3' to 5' direction.
The lagging strand is synthesized in Okazaki fragments.
4

The lagging strand is synthesized in short fragments called Okazaki fragments, while the leading strand is synthesized continuously.

Which of the following correctly describes commensalism?

Both species benefit
One species benefits, the other is unaffected
One species benefits, the other is harmed
Both species are harmed
2

In commensalism, one species benefits while the other is neither helped nor harmed.

Which of the following is an example of an alien invasive species affecting biodiversity?

Bengal tiger
Lantana camara
Indian cobra
Peepal tree
2

Lantana camara is an invasive species that disrupts native biodiversity by outcompeting indigenous plants.

Which type of diversity includes genetic variation within a single species?

Genetic diversity
Species diversity
Ecosystem diversity
Functional diversity
1

Genetic diversity refers to variations in the genetic makeup within a species, allowing adaptation to different environmental conditions.

What is the full form of VNTR, a key concept in DNA fingerprinting?

Variable Nucleotide Tandem Repeats
Variable Number of Transcribed Regions
Variable Number of Tandem Repeats
Viral Nucleic Tandem Repeats
3

VNTR stands for Variable Number of Tandem Repeats, which are used in DNA fingerprinting due to their high polymorphism.

During which stage of mitosis do chromatids get separated?

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
3

During anaphase, the centromeres split, and sister chromatids separate, moving to opposite poles of the cell.

Which of the following tissues provides mechanical support and flexibility?

Parenchyma
Collenchyma
Sclerenchyma
Phloem
2

Collenchyma provides mechanical support while allowing flexibility in young stems and leaves.

Which type of placentation is observed in sunflower?

Marginal
Axile
Basal
Free central
3

Sunflower exhibits basal placentation, where a single ovule is attached to the base of the ovary.

Which group of pteridophytes is known for producing microphyllous leaves?

Lycopsida
Psilopsida
Pteropsida
Sphenopsida
1

Lycopsida (e.g., Selaginella) is characterized by the presence of small, simple, and scale-like microphyllous leaves.

Which external factor is rarely a limiting factor for photosynthesis under natural conditions?

Carbon dioxide
Water
Light
Temperature
3

Light is rarely a limiting factor in nature because plants require only about 10% of full sunlight for photosynthesis.

Which of the following is a stop codon?

AUG
UAA
UUU
GGC
2

UAA is a stop codon that signals the termination of translation.

Which of the following is an example of species diversity?

Different genes in rice varieties
Variety of bird species in the Amazon
Variation in climatic zones
Different ecosystems in a biome
2

Species diversity refers to the variety of different species within an ecosystem, such as the diverse bird species in the Amazon rainforest.

What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross in F2 generation?

3:1
1:2:1
9:3:3:1
2:1
3

A dihybrid cross results in a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 in the F2 generation.

Which of the following statements about the "Sixth Extinction" is correct?

It is caused mainly by human activities
It is slower than previous extinctions
It occurred before humans evolved
It is only affecting marine species
1

The current "Sixth Extinction" is primarily driven by human activities, such as habitat destruction and over-exploitation.

Zoology

Which of the following is correct about the function of the SA node?

It generates impulses that regulate heart contractions.
It delays the impulses before they reach the ventricles.
It is located in the left ventricle.
It prevents blood backflow in the heart.
1

The sinoatrial (SA) node is the natural pacemaker of the heart and initiates electrical impulses for contraction.

Which of the following diseases is caused by Plasmodium species?

Tuberculosis
Malaria
Typhoid
Amoebiasis
2

Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species and is transmitted by female Anopheles mosquitoes.

Which of the following statements about genetically modified organisms (GMOs) is incorrect?

GMOs are created using recombinant DNA technology.
GMOs can be used to produce pharmaceuticals.
GMOs have no applications in medicine.
GMOs can be used in agriculture to improve crop yield.
3

GMOs have significant applications in medicine, including the production of insulin, vaccines, and other therapeutic proteins.

Which of the following is a structural polysaccharide in fungi?

Cellulose
Starch
Glycogen
Chitin
4

Chitin is a structural polysaccharide found in fungal cell walls and the exoskeleton of arthropods.

Which skeletal component protects the brain?

Vertebral column
Sternum
Cranium
Pelvic girdle
3

The cranium is a bony structure that encloses and protects the brain.

Which of the following is correct about the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC)?

GEAC regulates the use of genetically modified organisms in India.
GEAC approves traditional plant breeding methods.
GEAC oversees antibiotic production in bacteria.
GEAC is an international body for genetic research.
1

The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) is responsible for regulating the use, approval, and safety of genetically modified organisms in India.

Which of the following diseases is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?

Hepatitis B
Infectious mononucleosis
Rabies
Polio
2

Infectious mononucleosis, also known as the "kissing disease," is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).

Which of the following statements about the thalamus is correct?

It acts as a relay station for sensory information.
It directly controls voluntary muscle movements.
It is responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid.
It has no role in sensory processing.
1

The thalamus serves as a relay station for sensory signals, directing them to the appropriate areas in the cerebral cortex.

Which of the following statements about the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is correct?

JGA regulates blood pressure by releasing renin.
JGA is located in the Loop of Henle.
JGA is responsible for glucose reabsorption.
JGA decreases renin secretion when blood pressure is low.
1

The juxtaglomerular apparatus regulates blood pressure by secreting renin, which activates the renin-angiotensin system.

Which of the following animals is a member of phylum Mollusca?

Ascaris
Pheretima
Octopus
Asterias
3

Octopus belongs to phylum Mollusca and is a member of class Cephalopoda.

What is the function of the nictitating membrane in frogs?

Protection of eyes underwater
Sound reception
Gas exchange
Excretion
1

The nictitating membrane protects the frog’s eyes underwater and keeps them moist.

Which of the following proteins helps in osmotic balance of blood?

Hemoglobin
Globulin
Albumin
Fibrinogen
3

Albumin helps maintain osmotic balance by regulating water movement in and out of blood vessels.

Which part of a sarcomere disappears during complete muscle contraction?

A-band
H-zone
Z-line
I-band
2

The H-zone disappears during full contraction as actin filaments slide over myosin.

What is the primary function of the cilia lining the fallopian tubes?

Secretion of hormones
Transport of the ovum toward the uterus
Absorption of nutrients
Protection against pathogens
2

The cilia in the fallopian tubes help move the ovum from the ovary toward the uterus.

Which concept in evolution explains the formation of species from a common ancestor in different geographical regions?

Convergent Evolution
Parallel Evolution
Adaptive Radiation
Co-evolution
3

Adaptive radiation explains the formation of species from a common ancestor as they adapt to different geographical regions.

Which of the following is correct about polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

PCR is used to amplify specific DNA sequences.
PCR requires DNA ligase for amplification.
PCR is unrelated to molecular diagnostics.
PCR is used to degrade foreign DNA in cells.
1

PCR is a technique used to amplify specific DNA sequences through cycles of denaturation, annealing, and extension.

Which factor is the primary cause of population explosion in India?

Increased death rate
Decreased infant mortality rate
Lack of natural resources
Declining birth rate
2

The population explosion in India is primarily due to a decreased infant mortality rate and an increased life expectancy.

What is the main function of the pleural fluid in the lungs?

Transport gases
Reduce friction
Enhance gas exchange
Regulate blood pH
2

Pleural fluid reduces friction between the lung surface and the thoracic cavity during breathing.

Which vitamin is an essential part of the coenzyme NAD?

Vitamin B1
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B6
3

Vitamin B3 (Niacin) is a key component of NAD (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide).

Which of the following animals belongs to the phylum Hemichordata?

Balanoglossus
Ascaris
Pheretima
Octopus
1

Balanoglossus is a hemichordate, characterized by a proboscis, collar, and trunk.

Which macromolecule serves as the genetic material in all living organisms?

Protein
Carbohydrate
DNA
Lipid
3

DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) serves as the genetic material in all living organisms.

Which mechanism prevents polyspermy after the first sperm fuses with the oocyte?

Acrosomal reaction
Cortical reaction
Zona hardening
Sperm capacitation
2

The cortical reaction, which occurs immediately after the first sperm fuses with the oocyte, causes changes in the zona pellucida that prevent further sperm penetration.

Which of the following is incorrect?

Coelacanth is considered a living fossil.
Adaptive radiation results in species diversity from a common ancestor.
Genetic drift has a significant impact on small populations.
Homologous organs arise due to convergent evolution.
4

Homologous organs arise due to divergent evolution, not convergent evolution.

Which of the following statements about passive immunity is incorrect?

Passive immunity provides short-term protection.
Passive immunity is acquired through antibody transfer.
Passive immunity involves memory cell formation.
Passive immunity can be provided by maternal antibodies.
3

Passive immunity does not involve memory cell formation; it provides temporary protection using ready-made antibodies.

Which of the following statements about gel electrophoresis is incorrect?

Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on their size.
Smaller DNA fragments migrate faster than larger fragments.
Gel electrophoresis requires an electric field.
Gel electrophoresis does not require a gel matrix.
4

Gel electrophoresis requires a gel matrix (commonly agarose) to separate DNA fragments based on size.

Which term refers to the generation of identical plants through tissue culture?

Hybridization
Micropropagation
Mutation breeding
Somatic hybridization
2

Micropropagation is the process of producing large numbers of genetically identical plants through tissue culture.

Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine?

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Cortisol
Epinephrine
2

TSH, secreted by the anterior pituitary, stimulates the thyroid gland to release thyroxine (T4).

Which part of the nervous system is responsible for transmitting impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles?

Autonomic nervous system
Somatic nervous system
Sympathetic nervous system
Parasympathetic nervous system
2

The somatic nervous system controls voluntary movements by transmitting impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles.

Which organ in humans plays a primary role in excretion?

Liver
Lungs
Kidneys
Skin
3

Kidneys are the primary excretory organs that remove nitrogenous wastes and help in osmoregulation.

Which class of enzymes catalyzes the joining of two molecules?

Oxidoreductases
Transferases
Hydrolases
Ligases
4

Ligases catalyze the joining of two molecules, often requiring ATP.

Which polysaccharide serves as an energy storage molecule in animals?

Cellulose
Glycogen
Chitin
Starch
2

Glycogen is the primary storage polysaccharide in animals and fungi.

Which fetal membrane encloses the developing embryo and is filled with amniotic fluid?

Chorion
Amnion
Yolk sac
Allantois
2

The amnion is the membrane that forms the amniotic sac, which contains the amniotic fluid protecting the embryo.

Which of the following statements about inflammation is incorrect?

Inflammation helps eliminate pathogens.
Inflammation is never beneficial.
Inflammation increases blood supply to affected tissues.
Inflammation is a key part of the immune response.
2

Inflammation is a necessary immune response that helps in pathogen elimination and tissue repair.

Which of the following statements about gene cloning is incorrect?

Gene cloning involves the insertion of foreign DNA into a vector.
Gene cloning can be used to produce recombinant proteins.
Gene cloning cannot be used for medical research.
Gene cloning requires the use of restriction enzymes and ligases.
3

Gene cloning has numerous applications in medical research, including gene therapy and pharmaceutical production.

Which hybrid plant is formed by the fusion of protoplasts of tomato and potato?

Tomato hybrid
Potato hybrid
Pomato
Tomato-pomato
3

Pomato is formed by the fusion of protoplasts from tomato and potato plants through somatic hybridization.

Which term is used to describe the autonomous replication of a plasmid inside a bacterial cell?

Transformation
Transduction
Autonomous replication
Conjugation
3

Autonomous replication allows plasmids to multiply independently of the bacterial chromosome.

Which of the following is incorrect?

Genetic drift is a random change in allele frequencies.
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium remains stable even with continuous mutations.
Mutation is a source of genetic variation.
Darwin’s theory emphasizes survival of the fittest.
2

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is disrupted by mutations, gene flow, genetic drift, and natural selection.

Which of the following bones is a part of the pelvic girdle?

Humerus
Scapula
Ilium
Clavicle
3

The ilium is a part of the pelvic girdle, while the humerus, scapula, and clavicle are part of the appendicular skeleton​.

During which process do frogs burrow in the summer to avoid extreme heat?

Hibernation
Mimicry
Aestivation
Metamorphosis
3

Frogs undergo aestivation, also known as summer sleep, to escape extreme heat.

Which of the following animals belongs to the phylum Arthropoda?

Pila
Limulus
Asterias
Hirudinaria
2

Limulus (King crab) belongs to phylum Arthropoda and is considered a living fossil.

Which of the following statements about frog locomotion is incorrect?

Frogs have strong hind limbs adapted for jumping and swimming.
Frogs have webbed feet that help in swimming.
Forelimbs are longer than hind limbs for efficient jumping.
Frogs use their forelimbs for landing and balance after jumping.
3

The hind limbs in frogs are longer and more muscular than the forelimbs to aid in jumping.

Which among the following is the most abundant protein in the biosphere?

Collagen
Hemoglobin
RuBisCO
Keratin
3

Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase-oxygenase (RuBisCO) is the most abundant protein in the biosphere.

Which endocrine gland is responsible for the secretion of insulin and glucagon?

Thyroid
Adrenal
Pancreas
Pituitary
3

The pancreas contains the Islets of Langerhans, which secrete insulin and glucagon to regulate blood glucose levels.

Which of the following statements about hormonal contraceptive pills is incorrect?

Hormonal contraceptive pills suppress ovulation.
Hormonal contraceptive pills alter cervical mucus consistency.
Hormonal contraceptive pills permanently stop menstruation.
Hormonal contraceptive pills may prevent implantation of a fertilized egg.
3

Hormonal contraceptive pills do not permanently stop menstruation; their effects are reversible.

Which of the following is primarily responsible for secreting progesterone during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle?

Corpus luteum
Follicle
Endometrium
Pituitary gland
1

The corpus luteum forms after ovulation and secretes progesterone, which prepares the endometrium for implantation.

Performance Summary

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Physics
Chemistry
Botany
Zoology

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Score: / 720

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Total Skipped: / 180
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180