NEET Full-Length Mock Test 9

NEET Mock Test - 2026

Test 9

Number Of Questions: 180

Time: 3 hours

Correct answer Carries: 4.

Wrong Answer Carries: -1.

3:00:00

Physics

A car accelerates from rest at \( 5 \, \text{m/s}^2 \) for \( 4 \, \text{s} \), then decelerates at \( 2.5 \, \text{m/s}^2 \) until its speed is \( 10 \, \text{m/s} \). What is the total distance covered?

Phase 1: \( v = 5 \cdot 4 = 20 \, \text{m/s} \), \( x_1 = \frac{1}{2} \cdot 5 \cdot (4)^2 = 40 \, \text{m} \).

Phase 2: \( 10 = 20 - 2.5 t \Rightarrow t = 4 \, \text{s} \), \( x_2 = 20 \cdot 4 - \frac{1}{2} \cdot 2.5 \cdot (4)^2 = 80 - 20 = 60 \, \text{m} \).

Total = \( 40 + 60 = 100 \, \text{m} \).

95 m
100 m
105 m
90 m
1

Two parallel wires \( 0.12 \, \text{m} \) apart carry \( 7 \, \text{A} \) and \( 3 \, \text{A} \) in the same direction. What is the force per unit length? (\( \mu_0 = 4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \, \text{T m/A} \))

\( f = \frac{\mu_0 I_1 I_2}{2 \pi d} \).

\( f = \frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 7 \times 3}{2 \pi \times 0.12} = \frac{84 \times 10^{-7}}{0.24} = 3.5 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{N/m} \).

1.75 × 10⁻⁶ N/m
7 × 10⁻⁶ N/m
2.63 × 10⁻⁶ N/m
3.5 × 10⁻⁶ N/m
4

What is the Celsius temperature equivalent to \( 400 \, \text{K} \)?

Relation: \( T_C = T - 273.15 \).

Given: \( T = 400 \, \text{K} \).

\( T_C = 400 - 273.15 = 126.85^\circ \text{C} \approx 127^\circ \text{C} \).

126°C
127°C
130°C
125°C
2

A projectile is launched at \( 20 \, \text{m/s} \) at \( 53^\circ \). What is its maximum height? (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2, \sin 53^\circ = 0.8 \))

Maximum height \( h_m = \frac{(v_0 \sin \theta_0)^2}{2g} \).

Given: \( v_0 = 20 \, \text{m/s}, \sin 53^\circ = 0.8, g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \).

\( h_m = \frac{(20 \times 0.8)^2}{2 \times 10} = \frac{16^2}{20} = \frac{256}{20} = 12.8 \, \text{m} \).

10 m
16 m
12.8 m
20 m
3

A \( 3 \, \text{kg} \) mass moving at \( 12 \, \text{m/s} \) collides elastically with an identical stationary mass. What is the speed of the first mass after collision?

For equal masses in elastic collision, \( v_{1f} = 0 \, \text{m/s} \) (first mass stops).

0 m/s
4 m/s
6 m/s
8 m/s
1

A spring of \( k = 200 \, \text{N/m} \) has a \( 0.5 \, \text{kg} \) mass. If \( E = 1 \, \text{J} \), what is the amplitude?

Total energy: \( E = \frac{1}{2} k A^2 \).

\( 1 = \frac{1}{2} \times 200 \times A^2 \Rightarrow 1 = 100 A^2 \Rightarrow A^2 = 0.01 \Rightarrow A = 0.1 \, \text{m} \).

0.05 m
0.08 m
0.12 m
0.1 m
4

What is the total internal energy of 0.7 moles of a diatomic gas at 200 K with no vibrational modes? (\(R = 8.31 \, \text{J mol}^{-1} \text{K}^{-1}\))

Diatomic gas: 5 degrees of freedom, \(U = \frac{5}{2} \mu R T\).

\(U = \frac{5}{2} \times 0.7 \times 8.31 \times 200 = 2908.5 \, \text{J} \approx 2.91 \, \text{kJ}\).

2.33 kJ
2.91 kJ
3.49 kJ
4.07 kJ
2

A ball is thrown upwards with a speed of \( 38 \, \text{m/s} \). What is its velocity after \( 3 \, \text{s} \)? (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

Use \( v = v_0 + a t \). Here, \( v_0 = 38 \, \text{m/s} \), \( a = -10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \), \( t = 3 \, \text{s} \).

Substitute: \( v = 38 - 10 \cdot 3 = 38 - 30 = 8 \, \text{m/s} \).

The velocity is \( 8 \, \text{m/s} \).

5 m/s
8 m/s
10 m/s
12 m/s
2

The primary function of a p-n junction diode is to:

A p-n junction diode allows current in forward bias (low resistance) and blocks it in reverse bias (high resistance), making it ideal for rectification of AC to DC.

Rectify alternating current
Amplify signals
Generate oscillations
Store charge
1

A system absorbs \( 450 \, \text{J} \) of heat and performs \( 150 \, \text{J} \) of work. What is the change in internal energy?

First Law: \( \Delta Q = \Delta U + \Delta W \).

\( \Delta Q = 450 \), \( \Delta W = 150 \).

\( 450 = \Delta U + 150 \Rightarrow \Delta U = 450 - 150 = 300 \, \text{J} \).

250 J
300 J
350 J
400 J
2

Two masses \( 2 \, \text{kg} \) and \( 8 \, \text{kg} \) are separated by \( 4 \, \text{m} \). What is the gravitational potential at the midpoint? (\( G = 6.67 \times 10^{-11} \, \text{N m}^2/\text{kg}^2 \))

Distance to midpoint: \( r = 2 \, \text{m} \).

\( U = -\frac{G m_1}{r} - \frac{G m_2}{r} \).

\( U = -6.67 \times 10^{-11} \left(\frac{2}{2} + \frac{8}{2}\right) \).

\( U = -6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times (1 + 4) = -3.335 \times 10^{-10} \, \text{J/kg} \).

-3.0 × 10⁻¹⁰ J/kg
-3.3 × 10⁻¹⁰ J/kg
-3.5 × 10⁻¹⁰ J/kg
-4.0 × 10⁻¹⁰ J/kg
2

A material’s susceptibility becomes large and positive when its microscopic regions align spontaneously. This is a feature of:

Ferromagnetic materials exhibit large, positive susceptibility due to the spontaneous alignment of magnetic domains, which amplifies the magnetization far beyond that of paramagnetic or diamagnetic materials.

Diamagnetic materials
Paramagnetic materials
Ferromagnetic materials
Superconductors
3

What is the wavelength of light in a medium with refractive index 1.65 if its wavelength in air is \( 660 \, \text{nm} \)?

Wavelength in a medium \( \lambda_m = \frac{\lambda_{\text{air}}}{n} \).

Given \( \lambda_{\text{air}} = 660 \, \text{nm} \), \( n = 1.65 \), \( \lambda_m = \frac{660}{1.65} = 400 \, \text{nm} \).

400 nm
660 nm
500 nm
330 nm
1

In a circuit, a \( 20 \, \text{V} \) battery with negligible internal resistance is connected across a cubical network of 12 resistors, each \( 2 \, \Omega \). What is the total current?

Equivalent resistance of cube network: \( R_{\text{eq}} = \frac{5}{6} R = \frac{5}{6} \times 2 = \frac{10}{6} = \frac{5}{3} \, \Omega \).

Total current: \( I = \frac{V}{R_{\text{eq}}} = \frac{20}{\frac{5}{3}} = 20 \times \frac{3}{5} = 12 \, \text{A} \).

\( 10 \, \text{A} \)
\( 12 \, \text{A} \)
\( 14 \, \text{A} \)
\( 16 \, \text{A} \)
2

What is the critical angle for a diamond-air interface if the refractive index of diamond is \( 2.42 \)?

Critical angle: \( \sin i_c = \frac{n_2}{n_1} \).

Diamond (\( n_1 = 2.42 \)), air (\( n_2 = 1 \)).

\( \sin i_c = \frac{1}{2.42} \approx 0.413 \).

\( i_c = \sin^{-1}(0.413) \approx 24.4^\circ \).

20°
24°
28°
32°
2

A rectangular loop of sides 12 cm and 4 cm moves out of a 0.35 T field at 2 m/s perpendicular to the longer side. What is the motional emf?

\( \varepsilon = B l v \), \( l = 0.04 \, \text{m} \).

\( \varepsilon = 0.35 \times 0.04 \times 2 = 0.028 \, \text{V} \).

0.028 V
0.032 V
0.036 V
0.04 V
1

Three capacitors \( 10 \, \text{pF} \), \( 20 \, \text{pF} \), and \( 40 \, \text{pF} \) are in parallel. What is the total capacitance?

\( C = 10 + 20 + 40 = 70 \, \text{pF} \).

60 pF
65 pF
70 pF
75 pF
3

The magnetic potential energy of a dipole with \( m = 0.6 \, \text{A m}^2 \) in a field \( B = 0.2 \, \text{T} \) at \( 0^\circ \) is:

\( U_m = -m B \cos\theta \).

Given: \( m = 0.6 \, \text{A m}^2 \), \( B = 0.2 \, \text{T} \), \( \theta = 0^\circ \), \( \cos 0^\circ = 1 \).

Substitute: \( U_m = -0.6 \times 0.2 \times 1 = -0.12 \, \text{J} \).

-0.12 J
-0.15 J
-0.18 J
-0.20 J
1

What is the angular position of the third minimum in a single-slit diffraction pattern if the slit width is \( 6.0 \, \mu\text{m} \) and the wavelength is \( 480 \, \text{nm} \)?

Minima occur at \( \sin \theta = \frac{n\lambda}{a} \). For the third minimum, \( n = 3 \).

\( \lambda = 4.8 \times 10^{-7} \, \text{m} \), \( a = 6.0 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{m} \).

\( \sin \theta = \frac{3 \times 4.8 \times 10^{-7}}{6.0 \times 10^{-6}} = 0.24 \), \( \theta = \sin^{-1}(0.24) \approx 13.9^\circ \).

17.5°
13.9°
20°
10°
2

A capillary tube of radius \( 0.15 \, \text{mm} \) is dipped in water (\( S = 0.0727 \, \text{N/m} \), \( \rho = 1000 \, \text{kg/m}^3 \), \( \cos \theta = 1 \)). What is the capillary rise? (Take \( g = 9.8 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

\( h = \frac{2 S \cos \theta}{\rho g a} \).

\( S = 0.0727 \, \text{N/m} \), \( \rho = 1000 \, \text{kg/m}^3 \), \( g = 9.8 \, \text{m/s}^2 \), \( a = 0.15 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{m} \).

\( h = \frac{2 \times 0.0727 \times 1}{1000 \times 9.8 \times 0.15 \times 10^{-3}} = 0.0989 \, \text{m} = 9.89 \, \text{cm} \).

7.5 cm
9.9 cm
12.5 cm
15.0 cm
2

Why do materials like steel require a significantly larger force to produce small deformations compared to materials like rubber?

Steel has a much larger Young’s modulus compared to rubber, meaning it has greater stiffness and requires more force to produce the same strain.

Due to lower shear modulus
Due to higher density
Due to larger Young’s modulus
Due to greater ductility
3

The dimensional formula of angular velocity is \( [T^{-1}] \). Which quantity shares the same dimensions?

(a) \( [v / r] = [L T^{-1}] / [L] = [T^{-1}] \).

(b) \( [a t] = [L T^{-2}] [T] = [L T^{-1}] \).

(c) \( [F / m] = [M L T^{-2}] / [M] = [L T^{-2}] \).

(d) \( [s / t] = [L] / [T] = [L T^{-1}] \).

(a) matches.

Velocity / radius
Acceleration × time
Force / mass
Distance / time
1

What property of the electric field allows it to exert a force on a charge without physical contact?

The field’s ability to act at a distance is due to its nature as a force mediator. Generated by charges, it extends through space, influencing other charges via the force \( F = qE \), without requiring direct interaction.

Charge quantization
Action at a distance
Field symmetry
Charge mobility
2

A \( 6 \, \text{kg} \) mass at \( 4 \, \text{m/s} \) collides inelastically with a stationary \( 2 \, \text{kg} \) mass. What is the final speed?

Momentum conservation: \( 6 \times 4 = (6 + 2) v_f \Rightarrow 24 = 8 v_f \Rightarrow v_f = 3 \, \text{m/s} \).

2.5 m/s
3 m/s
3.5 m/s
4 m/s
2

A \( 10 \, \text{kg} \) mass in a lift accelerating upward at \( 3 \, \text{m/s}^2 \) is pushed downward with a force of \( 50 \, \text{N} \) by a spring. What is the normal force on the floor? (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

Net force on mass: \( N - mg - F_{\text{spring}} = ma \).

\( N - 10 \times 10 - 50 = 10 \times 3 \).

\( N - 100 - 50 = 30 \).

\( N - 150 = 30 \Rightarrow N = 180 \, \text{N} \).

130 N
150 N
180 N
200 N
3

A copper wire of cross-sectional area \( 4 \times 10^{-7} \, \text{m}^2 \) carries a current of \( 1.36 \, \text{A} \). If \( n = 8.5 \times 10^{28} \, \text{m}^{-3} \) and \( e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{C} \), what is the drift speed?

Drift speed: \( v_d = \frac{I}{n e A} \).

Substitute: \( v_d = \frac{1.36}{8.5 \times 10^{28} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 4 \times 10^{-7}} \).

Calculate: \( v_d = \frac{1.36}{5.44 \times 10^3} = 2.5 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{m/s} \).

\( 2.2 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{m/s} \)
\( 2.5 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{m/s} \)
\( 2.7 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{m/s} \)
\( 3.0 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{m/s} \)
2

A string fixed at both ends has a length of 1.4 m and a wave speed of 70 m/s. What is the frequency of its second harmonic?

For fixed ends: \( v_n = \frac{n v}{2L} \).

Second harmonic (\( n = 2 \)): \( v_2 = \frac{2 \times 70}{2 \times 1.4} = \frac{140}{2.8} = 50 \, \text{Hz} \).

40 Hz
45 Hz
50 Hz
55 Hz
3

In rotational kinematics, what is the rotational analogue of linear acceleration?

Angular acceleration (\( \alpha \)) is the rotational analogue of linear acceleration, representing the rate of change of angular velocity (\( \alpha = \frac{d\omega}{dt} \)).

Angular velocity
Angular acceleration
Torque
Moment of inertia
2

Four \( 8 \, \text{kg} \) masses form a square of side \( 8 \, \text{m} \). What is the potential energy of the system? (\( G = 6.67 \times 10^{-11} \, \text{N m}^2/\text{kg}^2 \))

4 sides: \( r = 8 \, \text{m} \), 2 diagonals: \( r = 8\sqrt{2} \, \text{m} \).

\( V = -4 \frac{G m^2}{8} - 2 \frac{G m^2}{8\sqrt{2}} \).

\( V = -6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 64 \left(\frac{4}{8} + \frac{2}{8\sqrt{2}}\right) \).

\( V = -4.269 \times 10^{-9} (0.5 + 0.177) \approx -2.89 \times 10^{-9} \, \text{J} \).

-2.8 × 10⁻⁹ J
-2.9 × 10⁻⁹ J
-3.0 × 10⁻⁹ J
-3.1 × 10⁻⁹ J
2

A series LCR circuit has \( R = 20 \, \Omega \), \( X_L = 40 \, \Omega \), \( X_C = 60 \, \Omega \). What is the phase angle?

\( \tan \phi = \frac{X_C - X_L}{R} = \frac{60 - 40}{20} = 1 \).

\( \phi = \tan^{-1}(1) = 45^\circ \).

Since \( X_C > X_L \), current leads voltage.

40°
42°
45°
50°
3

A pure Si crystal is doped with 1 ppm of pentavalent impurity. If the Si atom density is \( 5 \times 10^{28} \, \text{m}^{-3} \), the number of donor atoms per cubic meter is:

1 ppm = 1 part per million = \( 10^{-6} \). Number of donor atoms = \( 10^{-6} \times 5 \times 10^{28} = 5 \times 10^{22} \, \text{m}^{-3} \). These contribute electrons, assuming full ionization at room temperature.

\( 5 \times 10^{20} \, \text{m}^{-3} \)
\( 5 \times 10^{24} \, \text{m}^{-3} \)
\( 5 \times 10^{26} \, \text{m}^{-3} \)
\( 5 \times 10^{22} \, \text{m}^{-3} \)
4

Why does the potential energy of a system of two charges depend only on their separation and not on their orientation in space?

The potential energy between two point charges is \( U = \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \frac{q_1 q_2}{r} \), where \( r \) is the distance between them. This expression depends only on the magnitude of the separation \( r \), not on the direction or orientation of the line joining the charges in space, because the Coulomb force is isotropic (depends only on distance) and the potential is a scalar quantity derived from integrating the force over distance, independent of spatial orientation.

Due to the charges' alignment with the field
Due to the field's directional dependence
Due to the charges' orbital motion
Due to the isotropic nature of Coulomb's law
4

Check the dimensional consistency of \( v = \sqrt{\frac{P}{\rho}} \), where \( v \) is velocity, \( P \) is pressure, and \( \rho \) is density.

LHS: \( [v] = [L T^{-1}] \).

RHS: \( [P / \rho] = [M L^{-1} T^{-2}] / [M L^{-3}] = [L^2 T^{-2}] \).

\( \sqrt{[L^2 T^{-2}]} = [L T^{-1}] \), consistent.

Consistent
Inconsistent
Partially consistent
Cannot determine
1

A solenoid with mutual inductance 0.22 H has a current change of 7 A/s in the primary coil. What is the induced emf in the secondary coil?

\( \varepsilon = M \frac{dI}{dt} = 0.22 \times 7 = 1.54 \, \text{V} \).

1.2 V
1.4 V
1.54 V
1.6 V
3

A shell of mass \( 0.01 \, \text{kg} \) is fired from a gun of mass \( 50 \, \text{kg} \) with a muzzle speed of \( 100 \, \text{m/s} \). What is the recoil speed of the gun?

By conservation of momentum, total momentum before and after firing is zero.

Before firing: \( p_{\text{initial}} = 0 \).

After firing: \( m_{\text{shell}} v_{\text{shell}} + m_{\text{gun}} v_{\text{gun}} = 0 \).

Substitute: \( 0.01 \times 100 + 50 \times v_{\text{gun}} = 0 \).

\( 1 + 50 v_{\text{gun}} = 0 \Rightarrow v_{\text{gun}} = -\frac{1}{50} = -0.02 \, \text{m/s} \).

Recoil speed (magnitude) = \( 0.02 \, \text{m/s} \).

0.01 m/s
0.02 m/s
0.03 m/s
0.04 m/s
2

A photon of wavelength \( 300 \, \text{nm} \) is incident on a metal. What is its energy in eV? (Take \( h c = 1240 \, \text{eV nm} \))

Energy \( E = \frac{h c}{\lambda} \).

\( E = \frac{1240}{300} \approx 4.13 \, \text{eV} \).

4.13 eV
4.0 eV
3.8 eV
3.5 eV
1

In the Bohr model, what is the ground state of a hydrogen atom?

The ground state is the lowest energy state, where the electron is in the orbit with \( n = 1 \), having an energy of -13.6 eV.

State with \( n = 2 \)
State with zero energy
State with \( n = 1 \)
State with infinite radius
3

The resistivity of insulators is typically in the range:

Insulators have high resistivity (\( 10^{10} \) to \( 10^{19} \, \Omega \, \text{m} \)) or low conductivity (\( 10^{-11} \) to \( 10^{-19} \, \text{S} \, \text{m}^{-1} \)), preventing significant current flow.

\( 10^{-2} \) to \( 10^{-8} \, \Omega \, \text{m} \)
\( 10^{-5} \) to \( 10^6 \, \Omega \, \text{m} \)
\( 10^{10} \) to \( 10^{19} \, \Omega \, \text{m} \)
\( 10^2 \) to \( 10^8 \, \Omega \, \text{m} \)
3

A particle rotates about a fixed axis at a radius of \( 0.6 \, \text{m} \) with a linear speed of \( 7.2 \, \text{m/s} \). What is its angular velocity?

\( v = \omega r \).

\( v = 7.2 \, \text{m/s} \), \( r = 0.6 \, \text{m} \).

\( \omega = \frac{v}{r} = \frac{7.2}{0.6} = 12 \, \text{rad/s} \).

10 rad/s
11 rad/s
12 rad/s
13 rad/s
3

A circular loop of radius \( 0.13 \, \text{m} \) with 20 turns carries a current of \( 3.5 \, \text{A} \). What is the magnetic field at the center? (\( \mu_0 = 4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \, \text{T m/A} \))

Magnetic field \( B = \frac{\mu_0 N I}{2 R} \).

\( B = \frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 20 \times 3.5}{2 \times 0.13} = \frac{28 \pi \times 10^{-6}}{0.26} = 1.0769 \pi \times 10^{-4} \approx 3.38 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{T} \).

1.69 × 10⁻⁴ T
3.38 × 10⁻⁴ T
6.76 × 10⁻⁴ T
5.07 × 10⁻⁴ T
2

A concave lens of focal length \( 25 \, \text{cm} \) forms an image \( 10 \, \text{cm} \) from the lens. What is the object distance?

Focal length: \( f = -25 \, \text{cm} \) (concave lens).

Image distance: \( v = -10 \, \text{cm} \) (virtual image).

Lens formula: \( \frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{f} \).

\( \frac{1}{-10} - \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{-25} \Rightarrow \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{-10} - \frac{1}{-25} = \frac{-5 + 2}{50} = \frac{-3}{50} \).

\( u = -\frac{50}{3} \approx -16.67 \, \text{cm} \).

15 cm
16.7 cm
20 cm
25 cm
2

Which type of electromagnetic waves are emitted by hot bodies and molecules?

The document states that infrared waves are produced by hot bodies and molecules, often referred to as heat waves.

Ultraviolet waves
Infrared waves
Microwaves
Radio waves
2

The threshold wavelength for a metal is \( 500 \, \text{nm} \). What is the work function of the metal in eV? (Take \( h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \, \text{J s} \), \( c = 3 \times 10^8 \, \text{m/s} \), \( 1 \, \text{eV} = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{J} \))

Threshold frequency \( v_0 = \frac{c}{\lambda_0} = \frac{3 \times 10^8}{500 \times 10^{-9}} = 6 \times 10^{14} \, \text{Hz} \).

\( \phi_0 = h v_0 = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 6 \times 10^{14} = 3.978 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{J} \).

\( \phi_0 = \frac{3.978 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}} \approx 2.49 \, \text{eV} \).

2.0 eV
2.49 eV
3.0 eV
3.5 eV
2

A copper wire of length \( 2 \, \text{m} \) and cross-sectional area \( 2 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{m}^2 \) carries a current of \( 2 \, \text{A} \). If the number density of free electrons in copper is \( 8.5 \times 10^{28} \, \text{m}^{-3} \) and \( e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{C} \), what is the drift speed of the electrons?

Drift speed is given by \( v_d = \frac{I}{n e A} \).

Given: \( I = 2 \, \text{A} \), \( n = 8.5 \times 10^{28} \, \text{m}^{-3} \), \( e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{C} \), \( A = 2 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{m}^2 \).

Substitute: \( v_d = \frac{2}{8.5 \times 10^{28} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 2 \times 10^{-6}} \).

Calculate: \( v_d = \frac{2}{2.72 \times 10^4} = 7.35 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{m/s} \).

\( 5.0 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{m/s} \)
\( 7.35 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{m/s} \)
\( 8.0 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{m/s} \)
\( 9.5 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{m/s} \)
2

Which of the following is true about the nuclear force at very short distances (less than 0.8 fm)?

The nuclear force becomes strongly repulsive at distances less than 0.8 fm, preventing nucleons from collapsing into each other, as shown in the potential energy plot.

It is weakly attractive
It is charge-dependent
It is long-ranged
It is strongly repulsive
4

Chemistry

The rate constant of a reaction is \( 1.2 \times 10^{-4} \, \ce{s^{-1}} \) at 320 K and \( 4.8 \times 10^{-4} \, \ce{s^{-1}} \) at 330 K. What is the activation energy in \( \ce{kJ mol^{-1}} \)? (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

\( \log \frac{k_2}{k_1} = \frac{E_a}{2.303R} \left( \frac{T_2 - T_1}{T_1 T_2} \right) \).

\( \log \frac{4.8 \times 10^{-4}}{1.2 \times 10^{-4}} = \log 4 = 0.602 \).

\( 0.602 = \frac{E_a}{2.303 \times 8.314} \left( \frac{10}{320 \times 330} \right) \), \( E_a \approx 64.7 \, \ce{kJ mol^{-1}} \).

55.3
64.7
72.1
80.9
2

A solution of 2.44 g of acetic acid (\( \ce{CH3COOH} \)) in 100 g of benzene shows a freezing point depression of 0.5 K. If the molar mass is 60 g/mol, what is the van't Hoff factor due to dimerization? (\( K_f = 5.12 \, \text{K kg/mol} \))

Molality = \( \frac{2.44 / 60}{0.1} = 0.4067 \, \text{mol/kg} \).

Normal \( \Delta T_f = 5.12 \times 0.4067 = 2.08 \, \text{K} \).

Observed \( \Delta T_f = 0.5 \, \text{K} \).

\( i = \frac{0.5}{2.08} = 0.24 \).

0.5
1.0
0.75
0.24
4

Which of the following ions has a \( 3d^8 \) configuration?

Ni (Z = 28): \( 3d^8 4s^2 \). \( \ce{Ni^{2+}} \): \( 3d^8 \) (loses 2 from 4s).

\( \ce{Ni^{2+}} \)
\( \ce{Co^{2+}} \)
\( \ce{Fe^{2+}} \)
\( \ce{Mn^{2+}} \)
1

What is the charge-to-mass ratio of an electron as determined by experiments involving cathode rays?

The charge-to-mass ratio of an electron was measured using a cathode ray tube with electric and magnetic fields applied perpendicularly. The value is calculated as \( \frac{e}{m_e} = 1.758820 \times 10^{11} \, \text{C kg}^{-1} \).

1.758820 × 1011 C kg-1
1.602176 × 10-19 C kg-1
9.1094 × 10-31 C kg-1
6.626 × 10-34 C kg-1
1

Which system allows both energy and matter exchange with the surroundings?

An open system permits both energy and matter exchange, unlike closed (energy only) or isolated (neither).

Closed system
Open system
Isolated system
Adiabatic system
2

How many optical isomers are possible for \( \ce{[Cr(C2O4)3]^{3-}} \)?

\( \ce{[Cr(C2O4)3]^{3-}} \) is octahedral with three bidentate oxalate ligands, lacking symmetry, and forms two optical isomers (d and l enantiomers).

0
1
2
3
3

For the combustion of 1 g of graphite in a bomb calorimeter, \(\Delta U = -20.7 kJ\). What is \(\Delta U\) for 1 mole of graphite (molar mass = 12 g/mol)?

\(\Delta U\) per mole = \(\Delta U\) per gram × molar mass = -20.7 kJ/g × 12 g/mol = -248.4 kJ/mol\).

-248.4 kJ/mol
-20.7 kJ/mol
-269.1 kJ/mol
-227.7 kJ/mol
1

Which element in the 3d series has the lowest enthalpy of atomization?

Zinc (Zn, Z = 30) has the lowest enthalpy of atomization (126 kJ/mol) due to its fully filled \( 3d^{10} \) orbitals, resulting in weaker metallic bonding.

Mn
Zn
Cu
Sc
2

Which of the following is an example of a vicinal dihalide?

Vicinal dihalides have halogens on adjacent carbon atoms.

\( \ce{CH2Cl2} \)
\( \ce{CH3CHCl2} \)
\( \ce{CHCl2CHCl2} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2Cl} \)
3

Which of the following compounds is least reactive towards nucleophilic substitution?

Aryl halides are less reactive due to resonance stabilization of the C-X bond.

\( \ce{CH3CH2Br} \)
\( \ce{C6H5Cl} \)
\( \ce{CH3CHClCH3} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2CH2Br} \)
2

What is the total number of valence electrons available for bonding in the \( \ce{CO} \) molecule?

Carbon has 4 valence electrons (\( 2s^2 2p^2 \)), and oxygen has 6 (\( 2s^2 2p^4 \)). Total = 4 + 6 = 10.

10
8
12
6
1

For the reaction \( \ce{2CO2(g) <=> 2CO(g) + O2(g)} \), \( K_c = 0.01 \) at 1000 K. If initial \( [\ce{CO2}] = 0.5 \) M, what is \( [\ce{CO}] \) at equilibrium?

Let \( [\ce{CO}] = 2x \), \( [\ce{O2}] = x \), \( [\ce{CO2}] = 0.5 - 2x \).

\( K_c = \frac{[\ce{CO}]^2 [\ce{O2}]}{[\ce{CO2}]^2} = \frac{(2x)^2 \cdot x}{(0.5 - 2x)^2} = 0.01 \).

\( \frac{4x^3}{(0.5 - 2x)^2} = 0.01 \), solve: \( x \approx 0.027 \), \( 2x \approx 0.054 \) M.

0.054 M
0.1 M
0.027 M
0.25 M
1

Which technique separates two liquids with boiling points differing by less than 25°C?

Fractional distillation is used for liquids with close boiling points (less than 25°C difference), using a fractionating column to enhance separation.

Simple distillation
Steam distillation
Sublimation
Fractional distillation
4

What is the bond order of \( \ce{O2^-} \) according to molecular orbital theory?

For \( \ce{O2^-} \): 17 electrons, configuration ends with \( (\pi^* 2p_x)^2 (\pi^* 2p_y)^1 \). Bonding electrons = 10, antibonding = 7. Bond order = \( \frac{1}{2} (10 - 7) = 1.5 \).

2
1
3
1.5
4

What is the hybridization of the oxygen atom in \( \ce{CH3CH2OH} \)?

The oxygen forms two single bonds (to C and H) and has two lone pairs, indicating \( sp^3 \) hybridization.

\( sp \)
\( sp^2 \)
\( sp^3 \)
\( sp^3d \)
3

What is the hybridization of \( \ce{[PtCl4]^{2-}} \)?

Pt²⁺ (\( d^8 \)) with 4 \( \ce{Cl^-} \) ligands in a square planar geometry uses \( dsp^2 \) hybridization.

\( sp^3d^2 \)
\( d^2sp^3 \)
\( dsp^2 \)
\( sp^3 \)
3

The \( K_a \) of \( \ce{HClO} \) is \( 3.0 \times 10^{-8} \). What is the pH of a 0.01 M solution?

\( K_a = \frac{x^2}{0.01} \), \( 3.0 \times 10^{-8} = \frac{x^2}{0.01} \), \( x^2 = 3.0 \times 10^{-10} \).

\( x = \sqrt{3.0 \times 10^{-10}} \approx 5.48 \times 10^{-5} \), \( \text{pH} = -\log(5.48 \times 10^{-5}) \approx 4.26 \).

5.0
3.8
4.3
2.5
3

What is the product when \( \ce{C6H5NH2} \) reacts with \( \ce{CH3CH2COCl} \) in the presence of \( \ce{NaOH} \)?

Aniline reacts with propanoyl chloride (\( \ce{CH3CH2COCl} \)) in the presence of \( \ce{NaOH} \) to form \( \ce{C6H5NHCOCH2CH3} \) (N-phenylpropanamide) via acylation.

\( \ce{C6H5NHCH2CH3} \)
\( \ce{C6H5N(CH2CH3)2} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2CONH2} \)
\( \ce{C6H5NHCOCH2CH3} \)
4

Which of the following is a common test for unsaturation in hydrocarbons?

Alkenes and alkynes decolorize bromine water, which is a common test for unsaturation.

Baeyer’s test
Lucas test
Tollens' test
Bromine water test
4

The amino acid that contains an indole ring in its side chain is:

Tryptophan has an indole ring (a benzene ring fused to a pyrrole ring) in its side chain, making it aromatic and hydrophobic.

Tyrosine
Phenylalanine
Tryptophan
Histidine
3

Which of the following will undergo the haloform reaction?

Haloform reaction occurs with compounds containing the \(\ce{-COCH3}\) group, such as acetophenone and methyl ketones.

Benzaldehyde
Acetophenone
Benzoic acid
Phenol
2

How many grams of NH₃ are produced from 14 g of N₂ with excess H₂ in the reaction \( \ce{N2 + 3H2 -> 2NH3} \)? (Atomic masses: N = 14, H = 1)

Moles of N₂ = 14 / 28 = 0.5 mol.

1 mol N₂ produces 2 mol NH₃. Moles of NH₃ = 0.5 × 2 = 1 mol.

Molar mass of NH₃ = 17 g/mol. Mass = 1 × 17 = 17 g.

8.5 g
17 g
34 g
14 g
2

The number of moles of \( \ce{I^-} \) oxidized by 1 mole of \( \ce{KMnO4} \) in acidic medium to form \( \ce{I2} \) is:

\( \ce{2MnO4^- + 16H^+ + 10I^- -> 2Mn^{2+} + 8H2O + 5I2} \). 1 mole \( \ce{KMnO4} \) oxidizes 5 moles \( \ce{I^-} \) (10/2 = 5).

2
3
5
4
3

Which method is used to separate a mixture of liquids with boiling points differing by more than 25°C?

Simple distillation is effective for separating liquids with a large boiling point difference (>25°C), unlike fractional distillation for closer boiling points.

Simple distillation
Fractional distillation
Steam distillation
Chromatography
1

A solution contains 10 mL of ethanol (\( \ce{C2H5OH} \)) and 90 mL of water, with a total volume of 95 mL. What is the volume percentage of ethanol? (Density of ethanol = 0.789 g/mL)

Volume % = \( \frac{\text{Volume of ethanol}}{\text{Total volume}} \times 100 \).

Given volume of ethanol = 10 mL, total volume = 95 mL.

Volume % = \( \frac{10}{95} \times 100 = 10.53\% \).

11.11%
9.50%
10.53%
12.00%
3

How much charge in coulombs is required to deposit 0.54 g of silver from AgNO₃ solution? (Molar mass of Ag = 108 g/mol, F = 96500 C/mol)

Reaction: Ag⁺ + e⁻ → Ag(s), 1F deposits 108 g.

Moles of Ag = \( \frac{0.54}{108} = 0.005 \, \text{mol} \).

Charge = \( 0.005 \times 96500 = 482.5 \, \text{C} \).

965 C
241.25 C
1930 C
482.5 C
4

Which of the following hydrocarbons gives a white precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride?

Terminal alkynes, such as ethyne, react with ammoniacal cuprous chloride to form a white precipitate.

Ethane
Ethene
Ethyne
Benzene
3

In the reaction \( \ce{2FeCl3 + H2 -> 2FeCl2 + 2HCl} \), which species acts as the oxidizing agent?

An oxidizing agent is reduced. Fe (+3 in \( \ce{FeCl3} \) to +2 in \( \ce{FeCl2} \)) gains electrons, oxidizing H (0 to +1), so \( \ce{FeCl3} \) is the oxidizing agent.

FeCl₃
H₂
FeCl₂
HCl
1

What is the molar conductivity of 0.004 M KCl solution if its conductivity is 5.88 × 10⁻⁴ S cm⁻¹?

\( \Lambda_m = \frac{\kappa}{c} \times 1000 = \frac{5.88 \times 10^{-4}}{0.004} \times 1000 = 147 \, \text{S cm}^2 \text{mol}^{-1} \).

73.5 S cm² mol⁻¹
147 S cm² mol⁻¹
294 S cm² mol⁻¹
36.75 S cm² mol⁻¹
2

Which of the following amines has the highest number of alkyl groups attached to nitrogen?

Triethylamine (\( \ce{(CH3CH2)3N} \)) is a tertiary amine with three alkyl groups (ethyl) attached to nitrogen, the highest among the options.

\( \ce{(CH3CH2)3N} \)
\( \ce{(CH3CH2)2NH} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2NH2} \)
\( \ce{NH3} \)
1

A first-order reaction has a half-life of 15 minutes. How long will it take for 87.5% decomposition?

\( k = \frac{0.693}{15} = 0.0462 \, \ce{min^{-1}} \).

87.5% decomposed, 12.5% remains: \( \frac{[\ce{R}]_0}{[\ce{R}]} = 8 \), \( t = \frac{2.303}{0.0462} \log 8 = 45 \, \ce{min} \).

30 min
45 min
60 min
75 min
2

For \( \ce{N2(g) + 2O2(g) <=> 2NO2(g)} \), increasing temperature for this endothermic reaction will:

Increasing temperature favors the endothermic direction (products).

Shift to reactants
No effect
Shift to products
Decrease \( K_c \)
3

A first-order reaction is 25% complete in 16 minutes. How long will it take for 75% completion?

25% complete, 75% remains: \( \frac{[\ce{R}]_0}{[\ce{R}]} = \frac{100}{75} = 1.333 \).

\( k = \frac{2.303}{16} \log 1.333 = 0.01795 \, \ce{min^{-1}} \).

75% complete, 25% remains: \( t = \frac{2.303}{0.01795} \log 4 = 77.2 \approx 77 \, \ce{min} \).

48 min
77 min
96 min
120 min
2

Which of the following compounds will react most readily with Lucas reagent?

Lucas test differentiates primary, secondary, and tertiary alcohols based on their reactivity with ZnCl2 and HCl. Tertiary alcohols react fastest.

Methanol
Ethanol
Butan-2-ol
2-Methylpropan-2-ol
4

Which molecule has a single covalent bond formed by sharing two electrons between a hydrogen and a halogen atom?

In \( \ce{HBr} \), hydrogen and bromine share one pair of electrons (2 electrons), forming a single covalent bond.

\( \ce{HBr} \)
\( \ce{O2} \)
\( \ce{N2} \)
\( \ce{CO} \)
1

What is the heat released when 15.4 g of butane (C₄H₁₀) burns completely? (\(\Delta H^\circ = -2877.3 kJ/mol\), molar mass = 58 g/mol)

Moles = \(15.4 / 58 = 0.2655 mol\). Heat = \(0.2655 \times 2877.3 = 763.9 kJ\).

1438.65 kJ
5754.6 kJ
381.95 kJ
763.9 kJ
4

The first element of Group 13 shows anomalous behavior due to:

Boron (Group 13) has a small size, high electronegativity, and only 2s/2p orbitals, limiting its covalency to 4, unlike Al.

Large atomic radius
Low ionization enthalpy
Absence of d-orbitals
High metallic character
3

Which of the following elements forms a compound with hydrogen of the type \(XH_3\)?

Group 15 elements (ns²np³) like nitrogen form \(NH_3\), using 3 valence electrons to bond with H.

C
O
N
F
3

What is the mass percentage of oxygen in K₂Cr₂O₇? (Atomic masses: K = 39, Cr = 52, O = 16)

Molar mass = (2 × 39) + (2 × 52) + (7 × 16) = 78 + 104 + 112 = 294 g/mol.

Mass of O = 112 g.

% O = (112 / 294) × 100 ≈ 38.1%.

35%
36%
38.1%
40%
3

Which of the following compounds exhibits the highest boiling point?

Among alcohols, phenols, and ethers, alcohols have the highest boiling points due to hydrogen bonding.

Ethanol
Methoxymethane
Ethoxyethane
Benzene
1

Which of the following acids is the most acidic?

Trichloroacetic acid is the most acidic due to the strong electron-withdrawing effect of chlorine atoms.

Formic acid
Acetic acid
Trichloroacetic acid
Benzoic acid
3

Which principle states that no two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers?

The Pauli exclusion principle restricts two electrons from having identical quantum numbers, ensuring opposite spins in the same orbital.

Aufbau principle
Hund’s rule
Pauli exclusion principle
Heisenberg uncertainty principle
3

What is the number of unpaired electrons in \( \ce{[Cr(H2O)6]^{3+}} \)?

Cr³⁺ (\( d^3 \)) with \( \ce{H2O} \) in an octahedral field has 3 unpaired electrons (\( t_{2g}^3 \)), as it’s a \( d^3 \) system.

0
2
4
3
4

Which product is formed when benzoic acid is treated with \(\ce{PCl5}\)?

Benzoic acid reacts with phosphorus pentachloride (\(\ce{PCl5}\)) to form benzoyl chloride.

Benzophenone
Benzyl alcohol
Benzoyl chloride
Benzoic anhydride
3

What is the mass percentage of potassium in KMnO₄? (Atomic masses: K = 39, Mn = 55, O = 16)

Molar mass = 39 + 55 + (4 × 16) = 39 + 55 + 64 = 158 g/mol.

Mass of K = 39 g.

% K = (39 / 158) × 100 ≈ 24.68%.

24.68%
22%
25%
28%
1

Botany

Which of the following statements about genes and alleles is incorrect?

A gene is a segment of DNA that codes for a protein.
Alleles are different versions of the same gene.
All genes have only two possible alleles.
Dominant alleles always express their trait in heterozygous individuals.
3

Some genes have more than two alleles, as seen in the ABO blood group system.

Which of the following is incorrect about mRNA processing in eukaryotes?

A 5' cap is added to mRNA.
A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end.
Introns are removed by splicing.
mRNA is translated before leaving the nucleus.
4

**mRNA is not translated in the nucleus**; it must first be processed and transported to the cytoplasm.

Which plant growth regulator is widely used to induce flowering in long-day plants under short-day conditions?

Auxin
Cytokinin
Gibberellin
Ethylene
3

Gibberellins can induce flowering in long-day plants even under short-day conditions by promoting stem elongation and floral initiation.

Which of the following statements about companion cells in phloem is correct?

Companion cells are dead at maturity.
Companion cells help in the functioning of sieve tube elements.
Companion cells transport water and minerals.
Companion cells have thick, lignified walls.
2

Companion cells are living cells that help regulate the function of sieve tube elements in transporting organic nutrients.

Which molecule is involved in post-transcriptional gene silencing?

mRNA
miRNA
rRNA
tRNA
2

miRNA (microRNA) is involved in post-transcriptional gene silencing by binding to target mRNA and preventing its translation.

How many biodiversity hotspots are there in the world?

15
25
34
50
3

There are currently 34 biodiversity hotspots identified worldwide.

Which of the following represents an example of pleiotropy?

ABO blood group
Sickle-cell anemia affecting multiple organs
Incomplete dominance in flower color
Polygenic inheritance of skin color
2

Pleiotropy occurs when a single gene affects multiple traits, as seen in sickle-cell anemia, which impacts oxygen transport and organ function.

What is the primary function of the endodermis in roots?

Storage of food
Prevention of passive water flow
Photosynthesis
Formation of secondary tissues
2

The endodermis has Casparian strips, which regulate the movement of water and minerals into the vascular tissue.

What is the primary cause of species extinction in the last 500 years?

Natural disasters
Human activities
Genetic mutations
Plate tectonics
2

Human activities such as habitat destruction, pollution, and over-exploitation have caused a rapid increase in species extinction rates.

Which of the following is correct about stop codons?

They code for amino acids.
They signal the termination of translation.
They initiate transcription.
They bind to DNA polymerase.
2

Stop codons **signal the termination of translation**, ensuring the newly synthesized protein is released from the ribosome.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of telophase in mitosis?

Chromosomes decondense
Spindle fibers disassemble
Nuclear membrane reforms
Centromeres divide
4

Centromeres divide in anaphase, not telophase. In telophase, chromosomes decondense and the nuclear membrane reforms.

Which of the following statements about taxonomy is incorrect?

Taxonomy only involves naming organisms.
Taxonomy includes classification, identification, and nomenclature.
Taxonomy helps in understanding evolutionary relationships.
Taxonomy applies to both plants and animals.
1

Taxonomy is not just about naming organisms; it also involves their classification and identification.

Which type of junction allows the transfer of ions and small molecules between adjacent animal cells?

Tight junction
Desmosome
Gap junction
Plasmodesmata
3

Gap junctions are protein channels that allow ions and small molecules to pass between adjacent animal cells, facilitating communication.

Which cell organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes and is known as the digestive system of the cell?

Peroxisome
Lysosome
Ribosome
Mitochondrion
2

Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes that digest cellular waste, pathogens, and damaged organelles.

What is the sex chromosome composition of an individual with Turner’s syndrome?

47, XXY
45, XO
46, XY
47, XYY
2

Turner’s syndrome results from monosomy of the X chromosome, leading to a 45, XO karyotype.

What is the main advantage of compound leaves over simple leaves?

They have a larger surface area for photosynthesis
They are less prone to damage from strong winds
They have stronger vascular bundles
They allow more efficient transpiration
2

Compound leaves, such as those in neem, are less likely to be damaged by strong winds because the leaflets move independently.

Which pollinator is most commonly associated with entomophilous (insect) pollination in flowering plants?

Bats
Bees
Birds
Wind
2

Bees are one of the most common insect pollinators and play a key role in transferring pollen between flowers.

Which of the following is incorrect about meiosis?

Meiosis occurs in germ cells
Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half
Meiosis consists of one round of division
Meiosis contributes to genetic variation
3

Meiosis consists of two rounds of division (meiosis I and meiosis II), not just one.

Which type of pollination involves transfer of pollen by wind?

Zoophily
Entomophily
Anemophily
Hydrophily
3

Anemophily is pollination by wind, typical in many grasses and some trees.

Which mode of inheritance is observed in Thalassemia?

Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X-linked recessive
Y-linked
2

Thalassemia is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, requiring two mutated alleles for the disease to manifest.

Which statement about differentiation is correct?

Differentiation leads to loss of cell function.
Differentiated cells cannot redifferentiate.
Differentiation produces specialized cells.
Xylem vessels can undergo dedifferentiation.
3

Differentiation results in specialized cells with specific functions. Dedifferentiation allows some cells to regain division capacity, but xylem vessels cannot dedifferentiate.

Which region of a gene acts as the termination site for transcription?

Promoter
Operator
Enhancer
Terminator
4

The terminator sequence signals RNA polymerase to stop transcription and release the RNA transcript.

Which type of bond connects nucleotides in a single DNA strand?

Hydrogen bond
Peptide bond
Phosphodiester bond
Glycosidic bond
3

Phosphodiester bonds connect nucleotides in a DNA strand, linking the phosphate of one nucleotide to the sugar of another.

Which of the following statements about diatoms is incorrect?

Diatoms have silica-embedded cell walls.
Diatoms are exclusively heterotrophic.
Diatoms are a major component of phytoplankton.
Diatoms contribute significantly to oxygen production.
2

Diatoms are autotrophic and perform photosynthesis, contributing significantly to marine oxygen production.

Which type of aestivation is found in the corolla of cotton?

Valvate
Twisted
Imbricate
Vexillary
2

Twisted aestivation, seen in cotton, occurs when one margin of the petal overlaps the next one.

What is the function of a Barr body in female cells?

Activates all X chromosomes
Prevents expression of autosomal genes
Inactivates one X chromosome
Determines the sex of the individual
3

A Barr body is an inactivated X chromosome in female cells, ensuring dosage compensation.

Which of the following statements about flower symmetry is correct?

Zygomorphic flowers can be divided into two equal halves in multiple planes
Actinomorphic flowers have radial symmetry
Pea flowers exhibit actinomorphic symmetry
Sunflower flowers are zygomorphic
2

Actinomorphic flowers have radial symmetry, meaning they can be divided into equal halves in multiple planes.

Which step of cellular respiration generates carbon dioxide?

Glycolysis
Fermentation
Krebs cycle
Electron Transport Chain
3

The Krebs cycle releases carbon dioxide as a byproduct of the decarboxylation reactions.

Which of the following statements about protozoans is correct?

All protozoans are multicellular.
Protozoans reproduce only sexually.
Protozoans include free-living and parasitic forms.
Protozoans do not exhibit locomotion.
3

Protozoans include both free-living and parasitic species, such as Amoeba and Plasmodium.

Which of the following statements about liverworts is incorrect?

Liverworts grow in damp, humid, and shaded localities.
The thalli in liverworts can fragment for asexual reproduction.
Liverworts have a sporophyte with a complex leafy structure.
Gemmae in liverworts develop in gemma cups.
3

The sporophyte in liverworts is simple, differentiated into foot, seta, and capsule, not a complex leafy structure.

Which of the following statements about phyllotaxy is incorrect?

Sunflower exhibits alternate phyllotaxy
Guava has opposite phyllotaxy
Alstonia shows whorled phyllotaxy
All plants have whorled phyllotaxy
4

Not all plants exhibit whorled phyllotaxy. It is found only in certain plants like Alstonia.

Which of the following statements about the nucleus is correct?

The nucleus is absent in all eukaryotic cells.
The nucleus contains chromatin composed of DNA and proteins.
The nucleus produces ATP for the cell.
The nucleus is the site of lipid synthesis.
2

The nucleus contains chromatin, which is a complex of DNA and proteins responsible for genetic information storage.

What is the major function of carotenoids in photosynthesis?

Absorb green light
Transfer electrons to PSI
Prevent photo-oxidation of chlorophyll
Store energy
3

Carotenoids act as accessory pigments that protect chlorophyll from photo-oxidation by dissipating excess light energy.

Which enzyme captures carbon dioxide in the C4 pathway?

RuBisCO
PEP carboxylase
NADP reductase
ATP synthase
2

In the C4 pathway, PEP carboxylase captures CO2 efficiently, forming oxaloacetic acid.

Which of the following is a correct statement about decomposers?

Decomposers only feed on living organisms.
They break down organic matter and recycle nutrients into the ecosystem.
Decomposers only exist in aquatic ecosystems.
They have no role in nutrient cycling.
2

Decomposers break down dead organic material and return essential nutrients to the ecosystem.

Which of the following statements about species extinction is correct?

Extinction rates have increased due to human activities.
Extinction has no impact on ecosystem stability.
All species go extinct at the same natural rate.
Only large mammals are at risk of extinction.
1

Human activities such as deforestation, habitat destruction, and pollution have accelerated extinction rates beyond natural levels.

Which of the following statements about telophase II is incorrect?

Nuclear membrane reforms around each set of chromosomes
Cytokinesis occurs
Four haploid daughter cells are produced
Chromosomes remain condensed
4

During telophase II, chromosomes decondense, and nuclear membranes reform.

Which of the following is an example of a brood parasite?

Tiger hunting a deer
Cuckoo laying eggs in a crow’s nest
Orchid growing on a tree
Clownfish living among sea anemones
2

Brood parasitism occurs when one species lays its eggs in another species’ nest, such as cuckoos laying eggs in crow nests.

Which of the following microbial processes results in the production of methane in biogas plants?

Fermentation
Methanogenesis
Photosynthesis
Nitrification
2

Methanogenesis is the process by which methanogenic bacteria produce methane in biogas plants.

Which process in decomposition results in the accumulation of a dark-colored organic substance in soil?

Leaching
Mineralization
Humification
Fragmentation
3

Humification leads to the accumulation of humus, a dark-colored organic substance in soil that improves fertility.

Which of the following is a correct statement about ecosystem services?

Ecosystem services include soil formation, climate regulation, and pollination.
Ecosystem services have no economic value.
Ecosystem services only benefit wildlife.
Ecosystem services are unaffected by human activities.
1

Ecosystem services are essential for human survival, including soil formation, climate regulation, and pollination.

Which of the following statements about glycolysis is CORRECT?

It occurs in the mitochondria.
It directly produces 38 ATP molecules per glucose.
It occurs in the cytoplasm and is the first step of respiration.
Oxygen is required for glycolysis to proceed.
3

Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm and is the first step in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

Which of the following statements about histones is incorrect?

Histones help in DNA packaging.
Histones are negatively charged proteins.
Histones form nucleosomes with DNA.
Histones are found in eukaryotic cells.
2

Histones are **positively charged proteins**, which help in DNA packaging by binding to negatively charged DNA.

Which part of the leaf helps in gaseous exchange and transpiration?

Epidermis
Cuticle
Stomata
Mesophyll
3

Stomata are small openings on the leaf surface that regulate gaseous exchange and transpiration.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement about Photosystem I (PSI)?

PSI absorbs light at 700 nm wavelength.
Electrons from PSI reduce NADP+ to NADPH.
Oxygen is evolved in PSI.
It participates in cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
3

Oxygen is evolved in Photosystem II, not Photosystem I.

Zoology

Which of the following statements about the frog’s skin is incorrect?

Frog skin is highly vascularized and helps in respiration.
Frogs have dry, scaly skin to prevent water loss.
The skin of frogs contains mucus glands.
Frog skin plays a role in camouflage.
2

Frog skin is moist and lacks scales, allowing cutaneous respiration and water absorption.

Which of the following conditions is caused by the inflammation of the glomerulus?

Uremia
Diabetes insipidus
Glomerulonephritis
Renal calculi
3

Glomerulonephritis is an inflammatory condition of the glomerulus, affecting kidney function.

Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing DNA from a template strand?

DNA polymerase
RNA polymerase
Ligase
Helicase
1

DNA polymerase is the enzyme responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands during replication.

Which tissue layer of the uterus is responsible for the cyclic regeneration and shedding during the menstrual cycle?

Perimetrium
Myometrium
Endometrium
Serosa
3

The endometrium is the innermost layer of the uterus that undergoes cyclical regeneration and shedding during menstruation.

Which of the following statements about T-helper cells is correct?

T-helper cells activate other immune cells.
T-helper cells directly kill virus-infected cells.
T-helper cells function in the innate immune response.
T-helper cells produce antibodies.
1

T-helper cells (CD4+ T-cells) activate B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells to enhance immune responses.

Which hormone is responsible for regulating blood calcium levels by increasing calcium absorption?

Thyroxine
Calcitonin
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)
Aldosterone
3

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) increases calcium levels in the blood by stimulating calcium absorption in the intestines and resorption from bones.

Which of the following is correct about the cardiac cycle?

The cardiac cycle lasts approximately 2 seconds.
Systole refers to heart muscle relaxation.
The cardiac cycle consists of systole and diastole.
Diastole occurs when the heart contracts.
3

The **cardiac cycle consists of systole (contraction) and diastole (relaxation)** of the heart chambers.

Which of the following is incorrect about the function of hemoglobin?

Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs.
Hemoglobin does not bind to carbon dioxide.
Hemoglobin contains iron.
Hemoglobin is found in red blood cells.
2

Hemoglobin **does bind to carbon dioxide**, transporting it from tissues to the lungs for exhalation.

Which period saw the evolution of the first land plants?

Devonian
Ordovician
Carboniferous
Silurian
2

Land plants first evolved during the Ordovician period, paving the way for terrestrial ecosystems.

Which structure in the nervous system is responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid?

Meninges
Choroid plexus
Thalamus
Cerebellum
2

The choroid plexus, located in the ventricles of the brain, produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

Which of the following statements about sterilization methods is incorrect?

Vasectomy involves cutting the vas deferens in males.
Tubectomy involves cutting the fallopian tubes in females.
Sterilization is a temporary contraceptive method.
Sterilization prevents the transport of gametes.
3

Sterilization is a **permanent** method of contraception, not temporary.

Which of the following characteristics is common to both reptiles and birds?

Presence of a four-chambered heart in all members
Laying amniotic eggs
Possession of sweat glands
Having an external ear
2

Both reptiles and birds lay amniotic eggs, which provide protection and a stable environment for the developing embryo.

Which evolutionary force is demonstrated by the introduction of new alleles due to the movement of individuals between populations?

Mutation
Genetic Drift
Gene Flow
Natural Selection
3

Gene flow involves the introduction of new alleles due to the migration of individuals between populations.

Which evolutionary principle suggests that individuals with favorable traits are more likely to survive and reproduce?

Genetic Drift
Natural Selection
Founder Effect
Gene Flow
2

Natural selection suggests that individuals with favorable traits are more likely to survive and reproduce, contributing to evolutionary changes.

What is the role of a vector in recombinant DNA technology?

To cut DNA at specific sites
To replicate foreign DNA inside a host
To amplify DNA sequences in PCR
To degrade unwanted genes
2

Vectors, such as plasmids, are used to carry and replicate foreign DNA inside host cells for cloning.

Which structure in muscles stores calcium ions required for contraction?

Sarcolemma
T-tubules
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Myosin filaments
3

The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores and releases calcium ions for muscle contraction.

Which of the following correctly represents the partial pressure of oxygen (pO₂) in the alveoli?

159 mmHg
95 mmHg
40 mmHg
104 mmHg
4

The partial pressure of oxygen (pO₂) in the alveoli is approximately 104 mmHg, facilitating its diffusion into the blood.

Which of the following neurotransmitters is primarily responsible for transmitting signals at neuromuscular junctions?

Dopamine
Acetylcholine
Serotonin
Glutamate
2

Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for signal transmission at neuromuscular junctions.

Which type of respiration is used by frogs when they are both on land and in water?

Pulmonary and cutaneous respiration
Buccal and branchial respiration
Pulmonary and gill respiration
Only pulmonary respiration
1

Frogs use pulmonary respiration on land (lungs) and cutaneous respiration in water (skin).

Which enzyme is used to synthesize DNA from an RNA template?

DNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Ligase
Endonuclease
2

Reverse transcriptase synthesizes complementary DNA (cDNA) from an RNA template.

Where does fertilization typically occur in the female reproductive tract?

Uterus
Cervix
Fallopian tube
Ovary
3

Fertilization most commonly occurs in the fallopian tube, where the sperm meets the ovum.

Which of the following statements about plasmids is correct?

Plasmids are extra-chromosomal, circular DNA molecules.
Plasmids cannot replicate independently inside a host cell.
Plasmids are always linear in structure.
Plasmids cannot be used as vectors in genetic engineering.
1

Plasmids are extra-chromosomal DNA molecules that replicate independently and are commonly used as cloning vectors.

Which of the following correctly describes the transport of carbon dioxide in the blood?

Only dissolved in plasma
Mainly bound to hemoglobin
Mostly in the form of bicarbonate ions
Actively transported by RBCs
3

About 70% of carbon dioxide is transported in the form of bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻) in the blood.

Which of the following is correct about the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC)?

GEAC regulates the use of genetically modified organisms in India.
GEAC approves traditional plant breeding methods.
GEAC regulates pesticide usage in agriculture.
GEAC is an international body for genetic research.
1

The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) regulates the use, approval, and safety of genetically modified organisms in India.

Which muscle is responsible for the movement of the diaphragm during respiration?

Intercostal muscles
Rectus abdominis
Diaphragm muscle
Oblique muscles
3

The diaphragm muscle contracts and relaxes to facilitate breathing by altering thoracic cavity volume.

Which of the following statements about nucleotides is correct?

Nucleotides are composed of a phosphate group, a nitrogenous base, and a sugar.
Nucleotides do not contain any phosphorus.
DNA contains ribose sugar instead of deoxyribose.
RNA does not contain nitrogenous bases.
1

Nucleotides consist of a phosphate group, a nitrogenous base, and a sugar. They contain phosphorus, DNA contains deoxyribose, and RNA contains nitrogenous bases.

Which joint is correctly matched with its type?

Hinge joint - Shoulder joint
Pivot joint - Between atlas and axis
Gliding joint - Hip joint
Ball and socket joint - Knee joint
2

The pivot joint is found between the atlas and axis, allowing rotational movement​..

Which of the following statements about phospholipids is incorrect?

Phospholipids are major components of cell membranes.
Phospholipids have hydrophobic tails and hydrophilic heads.
Phospholipids store genetic information.
Phospholipids form bilayers in aqueous solutions.
3

Phospholipids form structural components of cell membranes but do not store genetic information.

Which substance is responsible for the symptoms of allergy?

Histamine
Insulin
Dopamine
Acetylcholine
1

Histamine is released by mast cells during allergic reactions, causing symptoms like sneezing, itching, and inflammation.

Which of the following statements about autoimmune diseases is incorrect?

Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system attacks its own body cells.
Autoimmune diseases are caused by bacterial infections.
Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease.
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease.
2

Autoimmune diseases are not caused by bacterial infections; they result from immune system dysfunction.

Which of the following groups has an endoskeleton composed of calcareous ossicles?

Mollusca
Arthropoda
Echinodermata
Platyhelminthes
3

Echinoderms have an endoskeleton made of calcareous ossicles, which provides support and protection.

Which enzyme is used in glycolysis to convert glucose into glucose-6-phosphate?

Amylase
Hexokinase
Pepsin
Lipase
2

Hexokinase phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis.

Which of the following statements about the function of the kidney is correct?

The kidney filters waste from the blood and maintains osmotic balance.
The kidney produces bile for digestion.
The kidney is responsible for the digestion of proteins.
The kidney secretes insulin for glucose regulation.
1

The kidney is responsible for filtering waste, maintaining osmotic balance, and regulating blood pressure.

Which of the following statements about annelids is correct?

They have an open circulatory system
They have metameric segmentation
They lack a nervous system
They have jointed appendages
2

Annelids exhibit metameric segmentation, meaning their body is divided into repetitive segments.

Which technique is used for the early detection of HIV in suspected patients?

ELISA
PCR
Northern blotting
Chromatography
2

PCR is used to amplify and detect even small amounts of viral DNA, making it suitable for early HIV detection.

Which of the following statements about restriction enzymes is FALSE?

They recognize specific DNA sequences
They cut DNA at recognition sites
They always produce sticky ends
They are derived from bacteria
3

Some restriction enzymes produce blunt ends instead of sticky ends when cutting DNA.

Which of the following is incorrect?

Genetic recombination increases genetic variation.
Industrial melanism is an example of natural selection.
Adaptive radiation is seen in Darwin’s finches.
Analogous organs indicate common ancestry.
4

Analogous organs do not indicate common ancestry; they arise due to convergent evolution.

Which hormone stimulates the production of white blood cells?

Erythropoietin
Thymosin
Insulin
Glucagon
2

Thymosin, secreted by the thymus, promotes the development and differentiation of T-lymphocytes.

Which of the following maternal adaptations is observed during pregnancy?

Decrease in blood volume
Increased systemic vascular resistance
Increase in cardiac output
Decrease in heart rate
3

Maternal cardiac output increases during pregnancy due to increased blood volume and heart rate to meet the metabolic demands of both mother and fetus.

Which condition is caused by the deficiency of insulin?

Diabetes mellitus
Goitre
Acromegaly
Dwarfism
1

Insulin deficiency leads to diabetes mellitus, characterized by high blood glucose levels and glucose excretion in urine.

What is the primary purpose of a bioreactor in industrial biotechnology?

To amplify DNA sequences
To create recombinant DNA
To provide optimal conditions for microbial growth and product formation
To separate DNA fragments
3

A bioreactor maintains optimal conditions such as pH, temperature, and aeration for large-scale microbial or cell culture growth.

Which structure in the placenta is primarily involved in the exchange of nutrients and gases between the mother and the fetus?

Chorionic villi
Umbilical cord
Decidua basalis
Amniotic sac
1

The chorionic villi, which extend into maternal blood spaces, facilitate the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the mother and the fetus.

Which of the following is correct about somatic hybridization?

Somatic hybridization involves the fusion of whole plant cells.
Somatic hybridization is a type of sexual reproduction.
Somatic hybridization involves fusion of protoplasts from different species.
Somatic hybridization is used only for animal cells.
3

Somatic hybridization involves the fusion of protoplasts from different plant species to form hybrid plants with combined traits.

Which of the following statements about reptiles is incorrect?

They have dry, cornified skin with epidermal scales
They lay eggs with leathery shells
All reptiles have a four-chambered heart
They are poikilothermic (cold-blooded)
3

Most reptiles have a three-chambered heart, except crocodiles, which have a four-chambered heart.

Which of the following is an example of a copper-releasing IUD?

Lippes loop
CuT
LNG-20
Diaphragm
2

CuT is a copper-releasing intrauterine device (IUD) that prevents pregnancy by affecting sperm motility and fertilization.

Performance Summary

Subject Correct
Answers		 Incorrect
Answers		 Attempted Skipped Accuracy
Physics
Chemistry
Botany
Zoology

Overall Score

Score: / 720

Category Details
Total Attempts: / 180
Total Skipped: / 180
Total Wrong Answers:
Total Correct Answers:
Time Taken:
Average Time Taken per Question:
0
180